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Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam Solved Question Paper 2008

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam Solved Question Paper 2008

General Socio - Economic & Banking Awareness

(Held on 14-12-2008)

1. Which of the following is grown in the cold climate of Kashmir?
(A) Coconut
(B) Palm
(C) Saffron
(D) Jute
(E) All these
2. Which of the following was India's rank in "Global Hunger Index for 2007" ?
(A) 118th
(B) 101th
(C) 96th
(D) 90th
(E) 50th
3. Which of the following banks has taken over the Centurion Bank of Punjab recently ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) HDFC Bnak
(D) Axis Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (c)
4. The 11th five year plan aims at a growth rate at which of the following levels ?
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 9.5%
(D) 10%
(E) 11%
5. Which of the following is NOT a Social Sector Programme ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Look East Policy
(C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(D) Kutir Jyoti
(E) Development of Women & Children in Rural Area
6. Which of the following is NOT an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
7. Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop ?
(A) Cconut
(B) Potato
(C) Oil Palm
(D) Cashew
(E) Rubber
8. Which of the following terms is used in Rifle Shooting ?
(A) Bull's Eye
(B) Smash
(C) Stroke
(D) Trump
(E) Punch
9. Ram Baran Yaday has taken over as the ________
(A) President of Nepal
(B) Prime Minister of Nepal
(C) Governor of Assam
(D) Governor of Manipur
(E) Governor of Kerala
10. The 15th SAARC Summit was organized in August 2008 in _____
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) Bangladesh
11. Service sector in India is about what percentage of the total gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 54%
(D) 48%
(E) 64%
12. The theme of which of the following was "Meeting Global Challenge Trough Innovative Cooperation" ?
(A) G-8 Summit
(D) European Union
(E) Summit of Eight Islamic Developing Countries
13. Which programme was launched to provide housing to rural people ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Slum Development Yojana
(C) Adarsh Basti Programme
(D) Balmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
14. Which of the following is not a part of Bulk Imports in our country ?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Iron & Steel
(C) Handicraft
(D) Edible Oil
(E) Non Ferrous Metals
15. Who amongst the following won the "Indian Open Grand Prix Badminton Championship" held in April 2008 ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) England
(D) China
(E) None of these
16. Who was given "Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award " for 2007 recently ?
(A) Abhinav Bindra
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) M.S.Dhoni
(E) Vishwanathan Anand
17. Right to Education Bill Envisages to provide free education to the children of the age group of _____
(A) Upto 2 and 1/2 Years
(B) Upto 3 years
(C) Upto 5 years
(D) Upto 6 years
(E) 6-14 years
18. 34th National Game (in 2009) will be organized in _____+
(A) Goa
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Punjab
(E) Jharkhand
19. Who amongst the following won the "Best Booker Prize" given away recently ?
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Shobha De
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) Salman Rushdie
20. Who amongst the following was given Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Reconcillation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal Prachanda
(C) Sonia Gandhi
(D) L.K.Advani
(E) Nelson Mandela
21.Dayana Mendoza who was adjudged Miss Universe 2008 is a citizen of ___
(A) Britain
(B) China
(C) Russia
(D) Venezuela
(E) India
22. The US Open Mixed Doubles 2008 was won by the pair of _____
(A) Roger Federer-Serena Williams
(B) Leander Paes - Serena Williams
(C) Sania Mirza - Leander Paes
(D) Cara Black - Leander Paes
(E) Cara Black - Mahesh Bhupati
23. The Association of China , Brazil, India , Mexico and South Africa is known as ______
(A) G-8
(B) G-15
(C) G-4
(D) G-5
24. National Judicial Council is headed by whom amongst the following ?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) President of India
(C) Vice President of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(E) Union Law Minister
25. Who amongst the following crossed 5000 runs milestone in Test Cricket recently ?
(A) Irfan Pathan
(B) Harbhajan Singh
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) M.S.Dhoni
(E) Virendra Sehwag

Forthcoming Competitive Exams 2009



● Madhya Pradesh PSC State Service (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (January 11)
● B.S.N.L. Telecommunication Technical Assistant Recruitment Test (January 11)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Test (January 18)
● Haryana SSC Sub-Inspector of Police Examination (January 18)
● Manager and Assistant Manager Recruitment Exam. (Conducted by the Rajasthan State Cooperative Bank Ltd., Jaipur) (January 25)
● Rajasthan PSC Assistant Jailor Exam., 2008 (January)
● A.F.M.C. Pune B. Sc. (Nursing)/General Nursing and Midwifery (GNM) Course, 2009 (January/February)
● Chhattisgarh PSC State Service (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (February 1)
● IGNOU OPENMAT Entrance Test for Management Programmes (February 1)
● Indian Overseas Bank Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (February 1)
● Customer Relationship Executive (PB) Written/Online Test in SBI and Associate Banks (February 1)
● Rajasthan Judicial Service Competitive Exam., 2008 (February 7-8)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class VI) (February 8)
● Rajasthan Hadarani Mahila Batalian Constable (Wireless Operator) Exam. (February 8)
(Closing Date : 16 January, 2009)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PGT Entrance Test (February 14)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT Entrance Test (February 15)
● Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (For ST category) (February 15)
● UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2009 (February 15)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Primary Teachers Recruitment Test (February 16)
● UP PCS Combined State/Lower Subordinate Services Special Selection Exam., 2008 (February 22)
● R.P.S.C. Teachers Grade-II Competitive Examination, 2008 (February)
● RPSC Physical Training Instructor (Grade-II & III) Competitive Exam., 2008 (For SC/ST) (February)
● Associate Banks of State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Test (March 1)
● Rajasthan PSC Teacher Grade II (Sanskrit Education) Competitive Exam., 2008 (March)
● Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam. (March 8)
(Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2009)
● Dena Bank Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (March 8)
● Army Religious Teacher Exam. (March 8) (Closing Date : 24 January, 2009)
● UCO Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (March 22)
(Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2009)
● CBSE All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2009 (April 5)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2009 (April 12)
● UPTU Lucknow State Entrance Examination (April 18-19)
● UPSC National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2009 (April 19)
● ICAR Agriculture Research Service/National Eligibility Test, 2009 (April 26)
● C.B.S.E. All India Engineering Entrance Examination, 2009 (April 26)
(Closing Date : 10 January, 2009)
● M.P. Assistant District Public Prosecution Officers Exam. (April 26) (Closing Date : 5 February, 2009)
● A.F.M.C. Pune M.B.B.S. Courses Entrance Exam. (May 3) (Closing Date : 19 January, 2009)
● U.P. Polytechnic Combined Entrance Exam., 2009 (May 3–5)
(Closing Date : 31 January, 2009)
● All India Pre-Veterinary Test, 2009 (May 9) (Closing Date : 25 February, 2009)
● NCERT National Talent Search Exam., 2009 (Stage-II) (For Class VIII) (May 10)
● CBSE All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental (Main) Exam., 2009 (May 10)
● Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2009 (May 17)
● Uttarakhand Polytechnic Combined Entrance Exam., 2009 (May 24–26)
(Closing Date : 28 February, 2009)

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam. 2008 Solved Paper (English Language)

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam. 2008 Solved Paper

English Language

Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The main idea conveyed by the report is that our children do not get a chance to enjoy learning at school because the syllabi are irrationally organised, teaching is text book centered and the system of examinations instills fear and encourages mechanical repetition. Text books developed along the lines of reconceptualised syllabi can attempt to integrate positive values, life skills, aesthetic sensibility and concern for the environment. They are interactive and make a conscious effort to point both children and the teachers towards other sources of learning such as neighbourhood, nature etc. In addition two parallel challenges deserve attention. The first is examination reforms. Rigid indifference to individualdifferences is the major flaw of the present system. From the quality of questions to the manner of evaluation, it favours drilled preparedness and ignores independent thought while the unrealistically high cut offs in coveted colleges are a further sign of systemic inefficiency. It is hardly surprising that the very thought of examinations makes the young depressed. Moreover practices of splitting unified topics into arbitrary bits carrying small marks value encourage teachers to concentrate on scoring topics overlooking the importance of perspective and overall understanding. Little surprise that many elite high fee schools are opting for International Baccalaureate not because it offers status with its global certification but for its flexibility and respect for individual differences in learning.

The second area is teacher training which suffers from obsolete notions. Most teachers are trained mainly to cover the syllabus in a mechanical exam-oriented manner. By insisting that every child move at the same pace in all subjects teachers encourage rote learning and ridicule for those who fall behind. Teacher training whether for nursery or secondary school teachers should be embedded in courses, which have the capacity to develop both the teacher's personality and perspective on society by linking subject learning with reflective and creative project work. The ultimate responsibility lies with universities and institutes of higher learning to ensure the quality of all teachers. Initiatives to improve the content of teacher training courses will ensure utilisation of desolate university campuses during summer vacations which conceal an enormous waste of infrastructure and expertise. The quality of education is a reflection of the quality of teachers and major improvements in their training and working conditions will motivate the young to pursue a teaching career and determine how India fares in the pursuit of economic and social development in the years to come.

1. According to the author, what is the major weakness of the present examination system ?

(A) Teachers do not take into account the nature of questions asked in the examination

(B) Teachers are subjective in their assessment of papers

(C) Cut off standards for admissions to good institutions need to be raised

(D) It distinguishes between a creative student and a rote learner

(E) It does not consider unique learning patterns of students

2. Which of the following factors is responsible for children's dislike of learning ?

1. Rigid, logical, systematic organisation of syllabus

2. Teaching methodology which does not focus on text books

3. Examination pattern which rewards rote learning

(A) Only (1)

(B) Both (1) and (2)

(C) Only (3)

(D) All (1), (2) and (3)

(E) None of these

3. What is the drawback of teacher training courses ?

(A) They are held during summer vacations so attendance is low

(B) Content is being constantly changed so teachers cannot keep up

(C) Their focus is on imparting education only from an examination perspective

(D) They focus on making syllabi interactive rather than focusing on examination patterns

(E) None of these

4. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(A) Examinations arouse negative emotions in students

(B) Weak students are at a disadvantage if teachers force students to learn at the same speed

(C) Holding teacher training courses only during the academic year will help teachers cover the syllabus in an examoriented manner

(D) The responsibility for improving the quality of teachers lies in the hands of universities

(E) In the present educational system rote learning is encouraged

5. According to the author which of the following conditions will influence India's future

development ?

1. Replacing traditional educational systems with globally accepted foreign systems

2. Improving employment conditions of teaching staff

3. Getting global accreditation for Indian college courses

(A) Only (1)

(B) Both (1) and (2)

(C) Both (2) and (3)

(D) Only (2)

(E) None of these

6. What will be the impact of having an interactive syllabus ?

(A) Teachers and students will explore sources other than the text book

(B) Students may get distracted and perform poorly in examinations

(C) Weaker students may get left behind

(D) Teachers may not be able to cover the entire syllabus for the examination

(E) Students and teachers alike will be overburdened

7. Which of the following is essential to improve the quality of education ?

1. Focus on encouraging educational systems like International Baccalaureate

2. Reducing the number of examinations students have to take

3. Lowering the cut offs for expensive colleges so that all students have access

(A) Both (2) and (3)

(B) Both (1) and (2)

(C) All (1), (2) and (3)

(D) Only (1)

(E) None of these

8. Why do teachers focus on ‘scoring’ topics ?

(A) Pressure from colleges who want to maintain high cut offs

(B) Faulty examination pattern which divides topics into smaller sections

(C) It is an objective of teacher training programmes

(D) To reduce the nervousness of students during examinations

(E) None of these

9. What is the author's recommendation to universities ?

(A) Encourage only creative project work for primary school teachers

(B) Enforce strict rules so that only those truly interested take up teaching as a profession

(C) Utilise their infrastructure during the academic year for teacher training

(D) Pass on responsibility for improving teacher training content to a government body

(E) None of these

10. Why is the International Baccalaureate gaining popularity ?

(A) It is a rigid well defined system

(B) It has a good reputation

(C) Fees of other educational systems are too high for the quality of education given

(D) It allows students some scope to learn at their own pace

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.

11. Coveted

(A) desired

(B) priceless

(C) necessary

(D) private

(E) valid

12. Instils

(A) teach

(B) causes

(C) orders

(D) inserts

(E) invites

13. Challenges

(A) fears

(B) questions

(C) disputes

(D) obstacles

(E) conflicts

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

14. Desolate

(A) happy

(B) occupied

(C) dejected

(D) repaired

(E) cheerful

15. Obsolete

(A) stylish

(B) fashion

(C) present

(D) useless

(E) novel

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. During the flood (A)/ Shilpa's colleagues (B)/prayed for (C)/ her safety. (D) No error (E)

17. Everyone admires Deepa (A)/ because of her ability (B)/ to generate (C)/ so good ideas. (D) No error (E)

18. The company has announced (A)/ a bonus for all (B)/employee who (C)/ achieve their sales targets. (D) No error (E)

19. The Cashier cannot (A)/ give no explanation (B)/ for the money (C)/ that is missing. (D) No error (E)

20. The manager has(A)/confidence in the engineer(B)/ability to (C)/ design the new software. (D) No error (E)

21. He has been assigned (A)/ with that team(B)/because he is(C)/well qualified and experienced. (D) No error (E)

22. The company's new project (A)/cannot be launched(B)/unless the approval (C)/ of the Board. (D) No error (E)

23. Instead criticizing (A)/ why don't (B)/ you help (C)/ with the presentation ? (D) No error (E)

24. Mr. Sethi was(A)/not given a promotion(B)/because he is(C)/frequent absent. (D) No error (E)

25. Inspite of (A) /so many hardships(B) /Amar has managed (C) /to success. (D) No error (E)

26. The United Nations Nuclear Inspectors recently visited Iran to find out the progress made by Iran in order to follow the deadline to stop enrichment of uranium by the same.

Which of the following is the report of the Group of Inspectors ?

(A) Iran has completely stopped enrichment of uranium

(B) Iran has failed to observed the deadline imposed by the UNO

(C) Iran has stopped enrichment of Uranium but is not ready to destroy the nuclear weapons produced earlier

(D) Iran did not allow Inspectors to visit its facilities and also refused to put any ban on the enrichment programme

(E) None of these

27. Ms. Asha Rose Migiro who has taken over as the Deputy Secretary General of the UNO, is a citizen of which of the following countries ?

(A) South Africa

(B) Tanzania

(C) India

(D) Trinidad

(E) None of these

28. The 12th ASEAN Summit was organized in 2007 in Cebu. Cebu is in which of the following countries ?

(A) Philippines

(B) China

(C) Nepal

(D) North Korea

(E) Thailand

29. The Prime Minister of India launched Auto Mission Plan (AMP) in the beginning of the year 2007. The plan is expected to transform India into a global automobile player in the next—

(A) ten years

(B) twelve years

(C) fifteen years

(D) twenty years

(E) five years

30. Haryana Governor Akhlaq-ur-Rehman Kidwai recently took the oath as the acting Governor of which of the following States ?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Punjab

(C) Delhi

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) None of these

31. Which of the following countries won the men’s Indoor Hockey World Championship 2007 held in Vienna /

(A) Poland

(B) Spain

(C) Austria

(D) Germany

(E) England

32. ‘Samjhouta Express’ which became the target of a bomb blast a few months back runs between which of the following two stations ?

(A) New Delhi–Lahore

(B) New Delhi–Wagah

(C) Amritsar–Wagah

(D) Amritsar–Lahore

(E) New Delhi–Islamabad

33. Mr. Okram Ibobi Singh is the Chief Minister of—

(A) Haryana

(B) Punjab

(C) Manipur

(D) Meghalaya

(E) None of these

34. Who amongst the following was adjudged as the Femina Miss India Universe 2007 ?

(A) Puja Gupta

(B) Pooja Chitgopekar

(C) Sweta Lamba

(D) Sarah Jane Dias

(E) None of these

35. Which of the following films won the 52nd National Filmfare Awards for Best Music ?

(A) Omkara

(B) Fana

(C) Lage Raho Munnabhai

(D) Rang De Basanti

(E) Dhoom-2

36. Which of the following is the full form of the ‘WMF’ ?

(A) Web Mutual Fund

(B) World Mutual Fund

(C) World Monuments Fund

(D) World Music Fund

(E) None of these

37. The 43rd Conference of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on security policies was organized in—

(A) Prague

(B) Moscow

(C) Vienna

(D) Paris

(E) Munich

38. Who amongst the following is the author of the book—“A view from the Outside : Why Good Economics Works for Every- one ?”

(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(B) Dr. Amartya Sen

(C) Mr. L. N. Mittal

(D) Mr. Ashok Lahiri

(E) Mr. P. Chidambaram

39. Who amongst the following won the WTA Title of Ericson International WTA Tennis Event 2007 (Women’s) ?

(A) Mara Santangelo

(B) Chia Jung Chuan

(C) Alla Kudryavtseva

(D) Yung-Jan Chan

(E) Yaroslava Shvedova

40. Which of the following State was at the top of the list of Medals won by it in 33rd National Games 2007 ?

(A) Punjab

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Kerala

(D) Manipur

(E) Assam

41. After much persuasion and also after facing an economic sanction on it which of the following countries recently decided to end its Nuclear Programme ?

(A) China

(B) Iran

(C) Libya

(D) North Korea

(E) None of these

42. The USA recently signed the Acquisition and Cross Serving Agreement (ACSA) providing for mutual support during humanitarian missions, peace keeping operations etc. with a country of Indian sub-continent. The name of the country is—

(A) Nepal

(B) Bhutan

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) India

(E) Bangladesh

43. Immediately prior to becoming the President of India Mrs. Pratibha Patil was the—

(A) Union Minister for Social Welfare

(B) Chairperson National Commission for Women

(C) Governor of Punjab

(D) Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh

(E) None of these

44. As per the targets set for 11th plan period the dropout rate of children from elementary school should be brought to which of the following levels by 2011-12 ?

(A) 10%

(B) 15%

(C) 20%

(D) 25%

(E) 30%

45. Digambar Kamat is the 19th Chief Minister of—

(A) Goa

(B) Karnataka

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Chhattisgarh

(E) None of these

46. Which of the following statements about Afro-Asia Cup 2007 is true ?

1. Africa XI won the tourna-ment

2. Asia XI won the tournament

3. All the three matches played under the tournament were declared draw, Hence no team won the trophy

4. Africa won the first match and declared winner

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 4

(E) None of these

47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Gandhi–A Spiritual Journey’ ?

(A) Mark Tully

(B) Ramchandra Gandhi

(C) K. N. Raj

(D) M. S. Swaminathan

(E) M. V. Kamath

48. Samresh Jung became the first Indian to bag on Olympic quota in which of the following events ?

(A) Swimming

(B) Pistol shooting

(C) 100 mtrs. Race

(D) High jump

(E) Long jump

49. Who amongst the following is allowed recently to have 49 per cent stake in HPCL Refinery ?

(A) Tata

(B) Mukesh Ambani

(C) Kumarmangalam Birla

(D) L. N. Mittal

(E) None of these

50. Which of the following is observed as the ‘World Refugees Day’ by the UNO ?

(A) June 26th

(B) July 26th

(C) July 20th

(D) June 20th

(E) August 20th

Answers :

1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D)

6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)

11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)

16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)

26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)

31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D)

36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (E) 39. (E) 40. (D)

41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (A)

46. (B) 47. (E) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (D)

Marketing and Business General Knowledge Solved Question

Marketing & Business General Knowledge Solved Question

Bank PO, Bank Clerk , MBA

1. Which is the component of marketing environment ?

(A) Legal environment

(B) Political environment

(C) Social and cultural environment

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

2. Marketing environment may be—

(A) Dynamic and Geographical limit

(B) Correct

(C) Full

(D) Fixed

(E) All of these

3. Which is the nature of marketing environment ?

(A) Internal and external environment

(B) Mutual Factors

(C) Dynamic Factor

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

4. Which is Social environment of a bank ?

(A) Caste System

(B) Political stability and status

(C) Inflation

(D) Exchange rate

(E) All of these

5. The dynamic factors are—

(A) Social and Political Factors

(B) Cultural Factor

(C) Technological Factor

(D) Economic Factor

(E) All of these

6. Which is mutual factors of marketing environment ?

(A) Labour

(B) Political system affected by Social factor

(C) Capital

(D) Plant

(E) Exchange

7. Target customer means—

(A) Present Customer

(B) The Customer to whom goods/service to be sold

(C) Staff

(D) Ex-customer

(E) Ex-staff

8. Nature of marketing environment includes—

(A) Changes as per environment

(B) Communication

(C) Challenges

(D) Wide market

(E) All of these

9. How many partners may be in a banking company ?

(A) 10

(B) No. of partner may be decided by customer

(C) 15

(D) 20

(E) 5

10. A bank is regulated by—

(A) Indian Companies Act, 1956

(B) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

(C) Indian Contract Act, 1872

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

11. Which is a Final account of a bank ?

(A) Profit and Loss A/c

(B) Balance Sheet

(C) Trading A/c

(D) A and B

(E) None of these

12. ………… is a Bank of Banks.

(A) State Bank of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) UCO Bank

(D) Canara Bank

(E) UTI Bank

13. NPA stand for—

(A) Net Par Assets

(B) Non-Performing Assets

(C) Net Performing Assets

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

14. What is full form of PA ?

(A) Performing Assets

(B) Public Act

(C) Public Assets

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

15. Loan and Advance of a bank is—

(A) Assets of bank

(B) Liabilities of bank

(C) Bill

(D) Cost

(E) All of these

16. NBAs stand for—(In case of bank)

(A) Net Book Assets

(B) Non-Banking Assets

(C) Non-Book Act

(D) Non-Banking Act

(E) All of these

17. PSBs is a—(In case of bank)

(A) Public Social Books

(B) Public Sector Banks

(C) Private Social Banks

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

18. What is full form of SCBs ? (In case of bank)

(A) School Commerce Books

(B) Schedule Commercial Banks

(C) Schedule Cost Books

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

19. Which is nature of marketing environment ?

(A) Satisfaction of environment

(B) Exchange of bank’s information

(C) Geographical limit

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

20. Need of marketing environment includes—

(A) Knowledge Fluctuation in banking system

(B) Knowledge of Changes

(C) Measurement of risk

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

21. Put option is available for—

(A) Buyer

(B) Seller

(C) Buyer or seller

(D) Regulated Authority of Bank

(E) All of these

22. The exchange department of a bank—

(A) Produce the banker note

(B) Convert the Foreign Currency into domestic Currency

(C) Issue a ATM Card

(D) Issue a Kishan Card

(E) Issue a bank note

23. ADRs is a—(In capital market)

(A) American Depository Receipts

(B) All Deposits Rate

(C) All Division Rule

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

24. Resource should be obtained at—

(A) Maximum Cost

(B) Minimum Cost

(C) No Cost no Profit

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

25. Which is the result of marketing environment ?

(A) Innovation

(B) Development of Competitive ability

(C) Knowledge of Challenge

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Answers :

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (E)

6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (A) 10. (B)

11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)

16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (D)

21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Solved Paper (Commerce)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam Solved Paper


(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The share of new partner in the profits is 1/5 and his capital is Rs. 20,000. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 1 : 1. The share of partners in total capital will be—
(A) 60,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(B) 80,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(C) 50,000 : 20,000 : 25,000
(D) None of the above

2. At the time of dissolution the loss of the business, will be compensated first of all from—
(A) Capital
(B) Profits
(C) Personal resources of the partners
(D) Donations

3. The meaning of written down value is—
(A) Original cost – Scrap value
(B) Book value + Depreciation
(C) Book value – Depreciation
(D) None of these

4. Given :
Depreciation on the basis of Fixed Instalment Method Rs. 2,000 p.a.
Establishment expenses Rs. 5,000
Scrap value Rs. 1,000
Span of life 10 years
The cost of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these

5. Given :
Cost Rs. 1,00,000
Scrap Value Rs. 10,000
Span of Life 10 years
Rate of depreciation 20% p.a.
The amount of depreciation for the first year on the basis of diminishing balance method will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 9,000
(D) Rs. 10,000

6. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the answer codes given below—
(a) AS-6
(b) AS-10
(c) AS-26
(d) AS-20
1. Accounting for Earning per share
2. Accounting for intangible and fictitious assets
3. Accounting for fixed assets
4. Depreciation Accounting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

7. Establishment expenses of a new machine will be debited to—
(A) Expenses Account
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Machinery Account
(D) None of the above

8. Goodwill is—
(A) Floating Asset
(B) Wasting Asset
(C) Fictitious Asset
(D) Intangible Asset

9. A Balance Sheet shows only—
(A) Personal Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(B) Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(C) Personal Accounts and Real Accounts
(D) Personal, Real and Nominal Accounts

10. Discount on Issue of Shares A/c is shown at the—
(A) Debit side of P & L A/c
(B) Assets side of B/S
(C) Liabilities side of B/S
(D) None of the above

11. Pre-incorporation Profit is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Capital Reserve
(C) Profit and Loss A/c
(D) Trading A/c

12. Which of the following is shown in Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c ?
(A) Provision for Income Tax
(B) Provision for Depreciation
(C) Provision for Doubtful Debts
(D) Contribution to General Reserve

13. On liquidation of a Company first payment is made in respect of—
(A) Liquidator’s remuneration
(B) Legal expenses
(C) Preferential creditors
(D) None of the above

14. Workmen’s Compensation Fund is a—
(A) Provision
(B) Surplus
(C) Current liability
(D) Loan

15. Debentures of Rs. 4,25,000 are issued against the purchase of assets of Rs. 4,50,000. In this case the amount of Rs. 25,000 is—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Securities Premium
(C) Revenue Profit
(D) Goodwill

16. A Company can reissue its forfeited shares—
(A) At a premium
(B) At a face value
(C) At a discount
(D) All of the above

17. Which of the following is an example of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium
(B) Taxes and Legal expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) Custom duty on import of machinery

18. Given :
Average profit of a firm Rs. 21,000
Normal Profit Rs. 18,000
Value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchases of super profit shall be—
(A) Rs. 39,000
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 12,000

19. A co-operative auditor starts his work of audit from—
(A) Account Books
(B) Payment Books
(C) Cash Book
(D) None of the above

20. Accounting for research and development relates to—
(A) AS-7
(B) AS-8
(C) AS-9
(D) AS-10

21. Goods worth Rs. 2,000 were distributed to employees free of charge. The account to be debited is—
(A) Profit and Loss A/c
(B) Advertisement A/c
(C) Labour Welfare A/c
(D) Goods A/c

22. The maximum rate of underwriting commission on debentures is—
(A) 10%
(B) 2•5%
(C) 12•5%
(D) 5%

23. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 6 per share were paid. If out of these shares, 8 shares were reissued to Ram as fully paid up on payment of Rs. 5•50 per share, the amount that will remain standing to the credit of Share Forfeited A/c will be—
(A) Rs. 48
(B) Rs. 72
(C) Rs. 84
(D) Rs. 120

24. Bonus Shares are issued to—
(A) Equity Shareholders
(B) Preference Shareholders
(C) Debenture Holders
(D) Secured Creditors

25. On an equity share of Rs. 100, the minimum amount payable on application under the law should be—
(A) Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 15
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 5

26. Share Premium received by a Company may be used for—
(A) Payment of dividend
(B) Payment of remuneration to management
(C) Issue of Bonus shares
(D) None of these

27. Garner Vs. Murray rule applies in case of—
(A) Admission of a partner
(B) Dissolution of a firm
(C) Retirement of a partner
(D) Death of a partner

28. When sale is Rs. 4,80,000, gross loss is 25% on cost, purchase is Rs. 3,50,000 and closing stock is Rs. 60,000, the stock in the beginning would be—
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 94,000
(C) Rs. 1,34,000
(D) Rs. 3,50,000

29. Balance of Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to—
(A) Capital Reserve A/c
(B) Profit and Loss A/c
(C) General Reserve A/c
(D) None of these

30. Planning includes—
(A) Objectives
(B) Policy
(C) Strategy
(D) All of the above

31. Hawthorne Experiments were conducted by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Peter F. Drucker

32. Who is called ‘The Father of Scientific Management’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) E. F. L. Breach
(D) F. W. Taylor

33. A plan when expressed in quantitative terms is called—
(A) Policy
(B) Procedure
(C) Objective
(D) Budget

34. Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’ of Motivation was propounded by—
(A) Herzberg
(B) Maslow
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) McGregor

35. Direction involves—
(B) Physical factors
(B) Financial factors
(C) Human factors
(D) None of the above

36. Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
(A) Line
(B) Line and staff
(C) Functional
(D) Matrix

37. Decentralisation—
(A) Reduces burden of chief executives
(B) Increases burden of chief executives
(C) Does not effect burden
(D) None of the above

38. Planning is a—
(A) Primary function
(B) Secondary function
(C) Supplementary function
(D) None of the above

39. Planning function of management is performed by—
(A) Top management
(B) Middle management
(C) Lower management
(D) All of the above

40. MBO approach in management was introduced by—
(A) M. P. Follet
(B) Keith Davis
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Oliver Sheldon

41. Which of the following is not an element of marketing mix ?
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Promotion
(D) Product life cycle

42. Market segmentation means—
(A) Grouping of buyers
(B) Grouping of sellers
(C) Grouping of middle men
(D) Grouping of producers

43. Standard costing is a technique of—
(A) Planning
(B) Organising
(C) Coordination
(D) Control

44. The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ was introduced by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Urwick

45. The last step of communication process is—
(A) Controlling
(B) Implementation
(C) Correction
(D) Reaction

46. Strategy is used in—
(A) Military
(B) Business
(C) Industry
(D) All of the above

47. ‘3-D’ Model of leadership is propounded by—
(A) Likert Reinsis
(B) Kurt Levis
(C) William Ridin
(D) Henry Fayol

48. Personal selling includes—
(A) Selling
(B) Services to the customers
(C) Developing goodwill of the firm
(D) All of the above

49. The process of evaluating employees is called—
(A) Performance appraisal
(B) Recruitment
(C) Induction
(D) Job evaluation

50. Franking machine is used for—
(A) Specimen signature
(B) Postage stamps
(C) Arrival and departure timings
(D) None of the above

51. Grapevine communication is a type of—
(A) Formal communication
(B) Informal communication
(C) Horizontal communication
(D) Vertical communication

52. The ‘Principle of Exception’ states that management should—
(A) Check everything without exception
(B) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(C) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(D) Concentrate their attention on exceptions

53. Which of the following is not a component of ‘SWOT Analysis’ ?
(A) Threats
(B) Strengths
(C) Weaknesses
(D) Options

54. Organisational change is necessitated by—
(A) External environmental pressure
(B) Internal strengths and weaknesses
(C) Sequential changes
(D) All the above

55. Which management functions are closely related to ?
(A) Planning and Organising
(B) Organising and Staffing
(C) Staffing and Control
(D) Planning and Control

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling
1. Training
2. Forecasting
3. Evaluating
4. Motivating
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 2 1

57. Memorandum of Association contains—
(A) Objective clause
(B) Name clause
(C) Capital clause
(D) All of the above

58. ‘Table A’ is an alternative to—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) None of the above

59. The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Managing Director
(D) Outsiders

60. By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
(A) By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
(B) By order of Registrar of Companies
(C) By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
(D) None of the above

61. Dividend paid between two Annual General Meetings is known as—
(A) Final dividend
(B) Interim dividend
(C) Special dividend
(D) None of the above

62. In a Private Company there are restrictions regarding—
(A) Transfer of shares
(B) Issue of prospectus
(C) Number of members
(D) All of the above

63. The gap between two General Meetings of the Company should not be more than—
(A) 12 months
(B) 18 months
(C) 15 months
(D) 20 months

64. Statement containing details of items to be considered in a meeting is called—
(A) Agenda
(B) Minutes
(C) Resolution
(D) Notice

65. The minimum and maximum number of members in a Private Company is—
(A) 2 and 50
(B) 2 and 20
(C) 2 and 10
(D) None of the above

66. What is the maximum limit of remuneration for a whole time manager in a company ?
(A) 3% of net annual profit
(B) 5% of net annual profit
(C) 7% of net annual profit
(D) None of the above

67. Which among the following documents defines the relationship between a company and outsiders ?
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus
(D) None of the above

68. Registration is not essential in case of a—
(A) Company
(B) Co-operative organisation
(C) Co-operative Societies
(D) Business of Joint Hindu Family

69. The Meeting of Board of Directors must be called at least once—
(A) In four months
(B) In three months
(C) In two months
(D) In one month

70. The Secretary of a Company should file copies of Special Resolution passed at Extraordinary General Meeting to the Registrar of Companies within—
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days

71. What is the quorum of General Meetings in the case of a Private Company ?
(A) 2 members
(B) 3 members
(C) 4 members
(D) 5 members

72. Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ?
(A) Public Limited Company
(B) Private Company
(C) Unlimited Company
(D) All of these

73. When three sugar mills combine, it is an example of—
(A) Vertical combination
(B) Horizontal combination
(C) Diagonal combination
(D) None of the above

74. The first electronic computer system was developed in—
(A) 1920
(B) 1940
(C) 1930
(D) 1950

75. An Index is—
(A) A filing system
(B) A photostat procedure
(C) The procedure to collect data
(D) An important help in filing

76. Indian Partnership Act was passed in the year—
(A) 1956
(B) 1936
(C) 1932
(D) 1930

77. According to the Partnership Act, the maximum number of partners in a banking firm may be—
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 20

78. Dissolution of Partnership takes place when—
(A) A partner misbehaves
(B) A partner becomes of unsound mind
(C) Business is running at a loss
(D) A partner dies

79. The existence of a Partnership Firm is—
(A) Separate from partners
(B) Not separate from partners
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

80. In which State the Mitakshara form of H.U.F. business does not apply ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala

81. Letter of Credit is presented by—
(A) Exporter
(B) Importer
(C) Custom Officer
(D) Shipping Company

82. The Agreement of Partnership—
(A) Must be oral
(B) Must be in writing
(C) Can be either oral or in writing
(D) Must be in writing on a stamp paper

83. Export procedure begins with—
(A) Indent
(B) Shipping order
(C) Marine insurance
(D) None of these

84. ‘Self-help by mutual help’ is a feature of—
(A) Public enterprise
(B) Public corporation
(C) Co-operative society
(D) All of the above

85. In India private sector entered into the Life Insurance business in the year—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001

86. General Insurance Corporation of India was set up in—
(A) 1956
(B) 1972
(C) 1980
(D) 2000

87. ‘Salvage Charges’ is related to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) None of the above

88. In ‘Life Insurance Contract’ the insurable interest is examined at the time of—
(A) Entering the contract
(B) Filing the claim
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Never

89. In connection with marine insurance the ‘Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith’ is based on the concept of—
(A) Disclosure
(B) Concealment
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) None of the above

90. Which statement is not true in respect of a Balance Sheet ?
(A) It is an account
(B) It is prepared every month
(C) It is prepared to check the mathematical accuracy
(D) All the above

91. A machinery is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 50,000 is spent on its installation. Rs. 5,000 is spent on fuel. What will be the amount of capital expenditure ?
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 3,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,55,000
(D) None of these

92. Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ?
(A) Compensatory Errors
(B) Errors of Principle
(C) Errors of Omission
(D) All the three

93. A large amount spent on special advertisement is—
(A) Capital Expenditure
(B) Revenue Expenditure
(C) Revenue Loss
(D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

94. Double Entry System was introduced in—
(A) America
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Italy

95. According to going concern concept a business entity is assumed to have—
(A) A long life
(B) A small life
(C) A very short life
(D) A definite life

96. The policy of ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ is followed due to—
(A) Convention of consistency
(B) Convention of conservation
(C) Convention of disclosure
(D) None of the above

97. Receipts and Payments Account is prepared by—
(A) Companies
(B) Banks
(C) Partnership firms
(D) Non-trading organizations

98. Examination of documents and vouchers is called—
(A) Physical verification
(B) Test checking
(C) Vouching
(D) None of the above

99. Internal Audit is done by—
(A) External Auditors
(B) Employees of the organisation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

100. Audit Programme is prepared by—
(A) The Auditor
(B) The Company
(C) Internal Auditor
(D) Financial Controller

101. First Auditor of a Company is appointed by the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) Board of Directors

102. Which of the following is not qualified to be a Company Auditor ?
(A) A body corporate
(B) An employee of the company
(C) A person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1,000
(D) All of the above

103. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Valuation is a part of verification
(B) Verification is a part of valuation
(C) Valuation has nothing to do with verification
(D) None of the above

104. Test checking refers to—
(A) Testing of accounting records
(B) Testing of honesty of employees
(C) Intensive checking of a select number of transactions
(D) Checking of all transactions recorded

105. Continuous audit is suitable for—
(A) Big institutions
(B) Small institutions
(C) General institutions
(D) None of the above

106. The function of an Auditor is—
(A) To examine arithmetical accuracy of accounts
(B) To detect and prevent errors
(C) To detect and prevent frauds
(D) All of the above

107. Audit is compulsory for—
(A) Sole Trader
(B) Partnership Firms
(C) Joint Stock Companies
(D) All of the above

108. Match List-I with List-II of the following and select the correct answer from answer codes given below—
(a) At cost price
(b) At market price
(c) Intrinsic value method
(d) Average profit method
1. Valuation of shares
2. Perishable goods
3. Raw material
4. Valuation of Goodwill
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2

109. In the absence of Articles of Association, an Auditor should keep in mind—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Table ‘A’
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) Legal Declaration

110. Who may recommend Special Audit of a Company ?
(A) Directors of the Company
(B) Shareholders of the Company
(C) Debentureholders of the Company
(D) Central Government

111. Internal check is a part of—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Internal Control
(C) Annual Audit
(D) Standard Audit

112. Cost Audit Report is to be submitted to—
(A) The Company
(B) The Central Government with a copy to the Company
(C) The Central Government
(D) The Company Secretary

113. A company auditor addresses his report to—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing Director
(D) Company Secretary

114. Which of the following Sections of the Companies’ Act 1956 relates to the maintenance of proper books of accounts ?
(A) Section-211
(B) Section-217
(C) Section-209
(D) Section-205

115. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admit a new partner Z and new profit sharing ratio is 7 : 4 : 3. The sacrificing ratio between X and Y will be—
(A) Equal
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2

116. Given :
Realised value of assets Rs. 60,000
Profit on Realisation Rs. 3,000
Book value of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 63,000
(B) Rs. 57,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 61,500

117. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. D is admitted for 1/10 share. The new ratio will be—
(A) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(D) None of the above

118. If actual average profit is Rs. 30,000 and normal rate of return is 12%, then capitalization value of the profits will be—
(A) Rs. 3,60,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,05,000
(D) None of the above

119. Under which Section of Companies’ Act an auditor has a right to participate and to speak in the General Meeting ?
(A) 231
(B) 229
(C) 226
(D) 224

120. New profit sharing ratio is calculated at the time of—
(A) Admission of a new partner
(B) Retirement of a partner
(C) Death of a partner
(D) All of the above

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (D)103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (A) 106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (D)