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 United Nations Objective General Knowledge question

United Nations Objective General Knowledge question

1. Which institution was the first attempt in the history towards the formation of the International society nations :
(A) League of Nations
(B) United Nations
(C) International UN Federation
(D) International Institution

2. Which institution is often termed as ‘a Child of War’:
(A) UN
(B) League of Nations
(C) SAARC
(D) WHO

3. Which government established a committee to study the plan for the formation of League of Nations :
(A) British Government
(B) American Government
(C) French Government
(D) German Government

4. Which American President put forward his famous ‘Fourteen Point’ programme for the formation of League of Nations:
(A) Bill Clinton
(B) George Bush
(C) George Lincoln
(D) Wilson

5. Who got credit for the formation of League of Nations :
(A) President Wilson
(B) President Thomson
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) None of the above

6. When was the League of Nations formed :
(A) 5th January, 1920
(B) 8th January, 1920
(C) 10th January, 1920
(D) 15th January, 1920

7. Which countries made a joint draft known as ‘Hirst-Millar Draft’, for the League of Nations :
(A) India and America
(B) British Government and India
(C) America and Britain
(D) None of the above

8. Which countries were the permanent members of the League of Nations :
(A) America and Britain
(B) France
(C) Italy and Japan
(D) All the above

9. For which World War League of Nations is often called the ‘Child of War’ :
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

10. Which Conference adopted the United Nations Charter on 26th January, 1945 :
(A) London Conference
(B) Tokyo Conference
(C) San Francisco Conference
(D) None of the above

11. When San Francisco Conference adopted United Nations Charter, how many Nations signed the said Charter :
(A) 52
(B) 50
(C) 53
(D) 54

12. On which day ‘United Nations Day’ is celebrated every year:
(A) 26th July, 1946
(B) 27th August, 1947
(C) 25th September, 1941
(D) 24th October, 1945

13. After which event, United Nations came into existence :
(A) The Declaration of St. James Palace (January, 12, 1941), The Atlantic Charter
(B) The UN Declaration (January 1, 1942), Moscow Declaration
(C) The Tehran Conference (December 1, 1943), The Yalta Conference (February 11, 1945)
(D) All the above

14. When was ‘The United Nations Declaration’ signed :
(A) 1st January, 1942
(B) 1st October, 1945
(C) 1st November, 1946
(D) 1st December, 1949

15. Who signed `United Nations Declaration' :
(A) President Roosevelt of America, Winston Churchill of Britain
(B) Maxim Litvino of Russia
(C) T. V. Soong of China
(D) All the above

16. How many states signed `United Nations Declaration' :
(A) 25
(B) 24
(C) 23
(D) 21

17. Who presided at the San Francisco Conference which became the main thrust to build UNO :
(A) Lord Bantick
(B) Lord Lawishe
(C) Lord Halifax
(D) None of the above

18. How many states were the original members of the UN:
(A) 51
(B) 185
(C) 57
(D) 189

19. At present how many states are the members of the UN:
(A) 191
(B) 192
(C) 189
(D) 187

20. Which reason is indicated for the birth of the UN in the Preamble of the UN Charter:
(A) Combined International Pressure
(B) First World War
(C) Second World War
(D) Experiences of a devastating War

21. Whose association or organisation is the UN :
(A) I.L.O.
(B) World Bank
(C) W.H.O.
(D) All the above

22. The amendment to Article 23 of the UN Charter enlarges the membership of the :
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) Trusteeship Council
(D) UNESCO

23. Which of the following statement is not correct :
(A) The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the UN.
(B) The Statue of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
(C) The Charter was signed on 26 June, 1945 by the representatives of the 50 countries.
(D) The name `United Nations', coined by United States President Woodrow Wilson was first used in the ‘Declaration by United Nations’ of 1 January, 1942.

24. Which is the Act created by the Indian Parliament on the subject of UN :
(A) United Nations Act, 1948
(B) United Nations Act, 1949
(C) United Nations (Immunities) Act, 1946
(D) United Nations (Privileges Immunities) Act, 1947

25. In which article of the UN Charter enshrine purposes of the UN :
(A) Preamable
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 5

26. What is the foremost important purpose of the UN:
(A) Peace
(B) Friendship
(C) Security
(D) Equality

27. Which part of the UN Charter mention important quotation thus ‘to save the succeeding generations from the scourge of war’ :
(A) Preamble
(B) Charter
(C) Article 10
(D) Article 5

28. What is the second purpose of the UN Charter :
(A) Develop friendly relations among world leaders
(B) Develop friendly relations is subject of economy be- tween Lunpres
(C) Develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principles of equal rights and self determination of people
(D) None of the above

29. Which Article of the UN Charter state the ‘principle of self-determination’ :
(A) 1(2)
(B) 55
(C) 56
(D) All the above

30. Which Article of the UN Charter deals with ‘The promotion of International economic and social co- operation :
(A) 55
(B) 60
(C) 58
(D) 61

31. What are the principal organs of the UN :
(A) The General Assembly, The Security Council
(B) The Economic and Social Council, The Trusteeship Council
(C) The International Court of Justice, The Secretariat
(D) All the above

32. What is the status of the UN:
(A) Arbitrary Organization
(B) Democratic Organization
(C) Military Organization
(D) Developed Countries Organization

33. On what basis, important matters of the UN are decided:
(A) Absolute vote
(B) Minority vote
(C) Economic power countries vote
(D) Majority vote

34. Which organ of the UN decide all important matters :
(A) ILO
(B) WHO
(C) Security Council
(D) UNESCO

35. How many members are there in the Security Council :
(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 7
(D) 8

36. How many permanent members are there in the Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2

37. When General Assembly of the UN decide all important matters how many country members are required to vote in order to pass the said matters :
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Full majority

38. What is the primary responsibility of the Security Council of UN :
(A) maintain world heritage
(B) maintain world food
(C) maintain world award
(D) maintain peace and security in the world

39. In the UN, who is empowered to use armed forces for the maintenance of peace and security :
(A) Security Council
(B) UN General Assembly
(C) ILO
(D) UNICEF

40. Who are bound to provide armed forces to the UN :
(A) Member-states
(B) Security Council members
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

41. Which is the principal Judicial organ of the UN :
(A) ILO
(B) IMF
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) None of the above

42. The amendment to Article 61 of the Charter, which entered into force on 31 August, 1965, enlarged the membership of the Economic and Social Council from 18 to :
(A) 27
(B) 37
(C) 47
(D) 54

43. Which of the following statement is not correct :
(A) Membership of the United Nations is open to all democratic nations.
(B) The Charter provides for the suspension or expulsion of a member.
(C) The official languages of the United Nations are Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish.
(D) The General Assembly is the main deliberative organ of the United Nations.

44. According to the UN Charter, how many types of members are there :
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1

45. What are the types of membership category defined by the Charter of the UN :
(A) Original members
(B) States which may be admitted to the UN in accordance with the provision of Article 4 of the Charter
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

46. Which UN body takes a decision whether a state is peace loving and whether it is able and willing to carry out obligations of the UN Charter :
(A) UN General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

47. Which article of the UN Charter mention expulsion of the member from the UN :
(A) Article 6
(B) Article 8
(C) Article 9
(D) Article 10

48. On whose recommendation, UN General Assembly decide suspension of a state from the UN membership :
(A) Judicial body
(B) International Judicial Community
(C) Security Council
(D) All the above

49. What majority is required when UN General Assembly decides suspension of a state from the UN membership :
(A) One-fourth majority
(B) Two-third majority
(C) Absolute majority
(D) Two-fourth majority

50. In the UN General Assembly, how many representatives can hail from a member state :
(A) Not more than 10
(B) Not more than 8
(C) Not more than 7
(D) Not more than 5

51. How many number of votes can be exercised by a member state in the UN General Assembly :
(A) Two votes
(B) One vote
(C) Three votes
(D) Four votes

52. What is the majority required of member states of UN when they take a decision on important issues :
(A) Two-third majority
(B) Two-fourth majority
(C) Two-six majority
(D) Absolute majority

53. Which UN body draws attention of the Security Council to situation that is likely to endanger Inter- national Peace and Security :
(A) Special Committee of UN
(B) General Assembly of UN
(C) Developed Countries Committee
(D) All the above

54. Which Article of the UN Charter provides that the UN General Assembly shall initiate studies and make recommendations for the purpose of promoting international co-operation in the political field and en- courage the progressive development of international law and its codification :
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 13
(D) Article 12

55. Which of the following has been awarded Noble Prize :
(A) ASEAN
(B) European Union
(C) Security Council
(D) International Labour Organisation

56. On whose internal affairs, UN General Assembly shall not pass any resolution :
(A) Security Council
(B) ILO
(C) WHO
(D) State

57. Which function does not belong to UN General Assembly :
(A) World legislative body
(B) Decision-making body
(C) Policy-making body
(D) All the above

58. Which principal organs are controlled by the UN General Assembly :
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

59. Which organs are subordinate to the UN :
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

60. Which organ of the UN approves budget of the UN :
(A) Secretary General
(B) Secretary
(C) Financial Secretary General
(D) General Assembly of UN

61. Which Article of the UN Charter provides that ‘The General Assembly shall consider and approve the budget of the Organization and expenses of the Organization shall be borne by the members as apportioned by the General Assembly :
(A) Article 17
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 20

62. Which of the following is not a World Bank constituent :
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) International Development Association
(C) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(D) International Finance Corporation

63. To which country, UN emergency force was sent by the UN :
(A) India
(B) Egypt
(C) Congo
(D) (B) and (C)

64. Which of the following is originated by the Berne Treaty of 1874 :
(A) World Metrological Organisation
(B) International Maritime Organisation
(C) International Labour Organisation
(D) Universal Postal Union

65. What kinds of committees are there as main committees of the UN General Assembly :
(A) Dibabmanent and Internal Security Committee, Economic and Financial
(B) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee, Special Political and Decolonization
(C) Administrative and Budgetary Committee, Legal Committee
(D) All the above

66. In which year, the UN passed a resolution establishing the International Law Commission:
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1946
(D) 1989

67. In which year, UN resolution established the United Nations Institute for Training and Research :
(A) 1969
(B) 1965
(C) 1967
(D) 1968

68. Which UN institution established that decision of the UN administrative tribunal shall be binding upon the UN member states :
(A) Security Council
(B) Committee of Security
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) None of the above

69. In which year, UN established UN Conference on Trade and Development :
(A) 1974
(B) 1977
(C) 1968
(D) 1964

70. When did the UN General Assembly pass ‘Unity for Peace Resolution’ :
(A) 4th November, 1950
(B) 8th November, 1950
(C) 3rd November, 1950
(D) 10th November, 1950

71. When can the special emergency session of the General Assembly be called :
(A) Absolute majority
(B) 9 affirmative votes of the Security Council
(C) The majority of the members of the General Assembly
(D) (B) and (C)

72. Which UN body may consider the matter if the Security Council fails to prevent any aggression or to take any action in respect of any breach of peace :
(A) UN General Assembly
(B) Security Committee of developing countries
(C) UN Developed Countries Committee
(D) None of the above

73. How many number of UN collective members measures committee examine ‘studying and report the matters relating to international peace and security’ :
(A) 18
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16

74. Which UN member country challenged and criticized the ‘UN Resolution Uniting for Peace’ :
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) America
(D) USSR

75. Who appoints the Secretary-General of the UN:
(A) UN General Assembly
(B) UN Security Council
(C) UN General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
(D) UN Under-developed Countries

76. Under which Article of the UN Charter, Secretary- General shall be appointed by the UN General Assembly on the basis of recommendations of the Security Council :
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 97
(C) Article 99
(D) Article 96

77. On whose vote of the UN organ, a member of the UN, who is in arrears of the payment of its financial contribution to the Organization, may be deprived from the membership:
(A) Security Council
(B) General Assembly
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the these

78. What is the majority required when UN General Assembly deprives a member state from membership because of arrears of the payment of financial contribution to the UN Organization :
(A) Two-third majority
(B) Two-fourth majority
(C) Absolute majority
(D) None of the above

79. Who elects ten non-permanent members of the Security Council :
(A) UN
(B) UN General Assembly
(C) UN Developing Countries
(D) All the above

80. Under which Article of the UN Charter, expenses of the Organization shall be borne by the members as apportioned by the General Assembly :
(A) 16
(B) 16(1)
(C) 17(2)
(D) 17

81. Who elects 54 members of the UN Economic and Social Council :
(A) UN developing council
(B) UN developing countries
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) UN General Assembly

82. Who elects judges of the International Court of Justice:
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) UN General Assembly
(D) UN Security Council

83. In which Conference, it was finally decided to establish a Security Council :
(A) New York Conference
(B) San Francisco Conference
(C) London Conference
(D) Tokyo Conference

84. How many members are there in the Security Council :
(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 14

85. How many permanent members exist in the Security Council :
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 4

86. How many members are non- permanent in the Security Council :
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 5
(D) 10

87. Who are the permanent members in the Security Council :
(A) China
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) All the above

88. On what date Security Council came into existence :
(A) 12 January, 1945
(B) 12 January, 1948
(C) 12 January, 1946
(D) 12 January, 1950

89. On 12th January, 1946, UN General Assembly elected how many members in the Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 9

90. On what date, UN General Assembly amended Article 23 of the UN Charter to extend the number of 15 members in the Security Council :
(A) 17th December, 1963
(B) 18th December, 1963
(C) 19th December, 1963
(D) 21st December, 1963

91. For what period, ten non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly :
(A) 4 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 3 years
(D) 6 years

92. Which type of members in the Security Council have a veto power :
(A) Permanent members
(B) Non-official members
(C) Non-permanent members
(D) None of the above

93. When ‘veto is not considered as action of a permanent member’ :
(A) US Senate passed resolution
(B) British Parliament made a law
(C) Security Council permanent members absent during meeting of the Security Council
(D) All the above

94. What are the functions and powers of the Security Council:
(A) Maintenance of international peace and security, elective functions
(B) Supervisory functions
(C) Constituent functions
(D) All the above

95. Under Article 41 of the UN Charter, how does the Security Council take military action against any country :
(A) through air
(B) through sea
(C) through land
(D) all the above

96. Under Article 43 of the UN Charter, Security Council asks whom to contribute for the maintenance of international peace and security and make available its armed forces, etc:
(A) ILO
(B) International Peace Keeping Force
(C) UN members
(D) Non-aligned Nations

97. Which committee advise and assist Security Council on all matters relating to its military requirements for maintenance of international peace and security :
(A) Military Advisory Committee
(B) Military Staff Committee
(C) Military Security Council
(D) None of the above

98. Its work completed-its membership reduced now to the five permanent-members of the Security Council-for which this statement is relevant :
(A) UNESCO
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) Economic and Social Council
(D) General Assembly

99. Which of the following statement is not correct:
(A) Trusteeship Council was established by the Charter in 1945.
(B) By 1994 all trust territories had attained self government or independence.
(C) The last trust territory of the Pacific Islands (Palau) became the 185th member state of the UN.
(D) The functions of the Trusteeship Council are transferred to the General Assembly.

100. When was the definition of aggression finally adopted without vote by the UN General Assembly :
(A) December, 13, 1974
(B) December, 12, 1974
(C) December, 18, 1974
(D) December, 14, 1974
101. Which members in the Security Council were conferred upon the veto power:
(A) China, Russia
(B) America, Britain
(C) France
(D) All the above

102. In which country's matter, Security Council has made significant contributions for the cause of world peace :
(A) Korea (1948), Indonesia (1949)
(B) Indo-Pak conflicts (1949, 1965 and 1971), Congo (1960-61)
(C) Cyprus (1964), Arab-Israeli conflict 1973, Palestine
(D) All the above

103. Which UN organ separately elects the judges of International Court of Justice:
(A) UN General Assembly
(B) UN Security Council
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

104. To which UN organ, does the Security Council send its annual report :
(A) General Assembly
(B) General Council
(C) Special Council
(D) All the above

105. How many permanent members are required to give their affirmative vote on important decisions taken by the Security Council :
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2

106. The United Nations Secretarial consists of :
(A) Commissions and Committees
(B) Specialised agencies and related organisations
(C) Secretaries and Secretary General
(D) Departments and Offices

107. Which permanent member of the Security Council used double veto on the question of Greece, Czechoslovakia and Spain :
(A) USA
(B) USSR
(C) Britain
(D) None of the above

108. Who can challenge the decision of the President of the Security Council :
(A) Developed countries
(B) Developing countries
(C) Permanent members of Security Council
(D) None of the above

109. In which subject, Security Council's recommendation is necessary for UN General Assembly decision :
(A) Admitting a new state of the UN
(B) The suspension and expulsion of UN members
(C) Appointment of Secretary General
(D) All the above

110. What is the present strength of members in the Economic and Social Council of the UN body :
(A) 53
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 56

111. Before 31st August, 1965, how many members were in the Economic and Social Council:
(A) 18
(B) 17
(C) 16
(D) 13

112. How many votes are entitled for members of the UN Economic and Social Council:
(A) Two votes
(B) Three votes
(C) One vote
(D) Five votes

113. Which UN organization may make or initiate studies and forward reports with respect to economic, social, cultural, educational, health and other related matters to the UN General Assembly :
(A) ILO
(B) IMF
(C) Security Council
(D) Economic and Social Council

114. How many Regional Commissions are established by the UN Economic and Social Council :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 1

115. Which are the regional Commissions of the UN Economic and Social Council:
(A) Economic Commission for Europe, Economic Commission for Asia and Pacific
(B) Economic Commission for Africa
(C) Economic Commission for Latin America and the Caribbean
(D) All the above

116. In which year did UN establish the UN Conference on Trade and Development :
(A) 1964
(B) 1963
(C) 1969
(D) 1967

117. Which of the following is UN Programme and not special agency :
(A) UNEP
(B) UNESCO
(C) WHO
(D) ILO

118. Which of the following is UN special agency and not programme :
(A) UNDP
(B) UNIFEM
(C) IBRD
(D) UNFPA

119. Which of the following is a World Bank group of five institutions :
(A) IMF
(B) IDA
(C) ILO
(D) ITU

120. Which of the following established as the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 :
(A) IMF
(B) ILO
(C) WHO
(D) UNDP

121. When was the first restructured substantive session of the Economic and Social Council held :
(A) 29 April to 31 July 1992
(B) 27 April to 30 July 1992
(C) 27 June to 31 July 1992
(D) None of the above

122. In the UN, how many territories were placed under the trusteeship system :
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D)15

123. Which Article of the UN Charter established the International Trusteeship System :
(A) 78
(B) 79
(C) 75
(D) 74

124. Which are the territories placed under the Trusteeship System :
(A) New Geneva and Nauru (Australia), Rwanda- Urundi (Belgium)
(B) Cameroon and Togoland (France), Someell (Italy), Western Samva (New Zealand)
(C) Cameroon, Togoland and Tanzania, (UK), Pacific Islands Trust Territory (US)
(D) All the above

125. In which year, UN General Assembly terminated South Africa's mandate over Namibia:
(A) 1968
(B) 1966
(C) 1969
(D) 1965

126. In which year UN General Assembly established a 11- member council for South- West Africa to administer the territory till independence :
(A) 1967
(B) 1965
(C) 1964
(D) 1968

127. Which is the first specialised agency of the UN :
(A) UNCTAD
(B) ILO
(C) UNESCO
(D) UNDP

128. Which Article of the UN Charter describe the basic procedure to make a member of the UN Trusteeship Council:
(A) 84
(B) 83
(C) 86
(D) 89

129. Who are the members of the Trusteeship Council :
(A) US, China
(B) France
(C) Russian Federation and UK
(D) All the above

130. When UN Peacekeeping forces were awarded Noble Prize :
(A) 1978
(B) 1988
(C) 1998
(D) 2005

131. How many vote does each member of the Trusteeship Council possess :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

132. Which is the original trust territory under the Trusteeship System :
(A) Western Samva
(B) Rwanda-Urundi
(C) Minonesia
(D) Somaliland

133. Which UN body shall exercise all functions of the UN relating to strategic areas, including the approval of the terms of the trusteeship agreements and also their alteration or amendment :
(A) UN General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C) UN body
(D) Developed countries

134. In the subject of independence of which country, UN General Assembly took initiative and secured independence from South Africa :
(A) India
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Namibia
(D) None of the above

135. Which date is observed every year by the UN on the subject of Namibia day :
(A) 15th August
(B) 18th August
(C) 25th August
(D) 26th August

136. After efforts by the UN for Namibia's independence, which was the date when Namibia became an independent country :
(A) 21st March, 1990
(B) 28th March, 1990
(C) 26th March, 1990
(D) 29th March, 1990

137. Which is not a correct statement :
(A) Peacekeeping operations are established by the Security Council.
(B) Peacekeepers are identified only by a United Nations red helmet
(C) UN has no military forces of its own.
(D) Peacekeepers wear their country's uniform.

138. Who is the ‘Chief Administrative Officer’ of the UN Secretariate :
(A) Special Secretary
(B) Secretary-in-Charge
(C) Secretary General
(D) Dy. Secretary General

139. What is the term of the Secretary General of the UN:
(A) 6 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 3 years

140. In which year, International Civil Service Advisory Board was established for the UN :
(A) 1968
(B) 1967
(C) 1948
(D) 1949

141. When did the UN General Assembly adopt the statute of the International Civil Service Commission :
(A) December, 1974
(B) December, 1976
(C) December, 1979
(D) December, 1978

142. What functions are performed by the UN Secretary General:
(A) The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the Organization.
(B) The Secretary-General acts in the capacity of the chief administrative officer of the organization in all meetings of the General Assembly, the Security Council, The Economic and Social Council and of the Trusteeship Council.
(C) Secretary-General makes annual report to the UN General Assembly in the work of the Organization. The Secretary-General may bring to the notice of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion threatens the maintenance of international peace and security.
(D) All the above

143. What is the general nature of the specialised agencies of the UN :
(A) Most of the states are the members of these specialized agencies.
(B) All the specialised agencies have been brought in relationship with the UN through special agreements.
(C) Each specialised agency has a Constitution or Charter of its own which describes the duties, functions, constitution, etc. of the organisation.
(D) All the above

144. When was the international Labour Organization established :
(A) 1919
(B) 1920
(C) 1921
(D) 1923

145. In 1919, International Labour Organization became an autonomous partner of which Organization :
(A) UN
(B) Developed Nations
(C) League of Nations
(D) None of the above

146. Where is the head office of the International Labour Organization situated :
(A) Paris
(B) Geneva
(C) Moscow
(D) London

147. When ILO was brought into relationship with the UN through a special agreement:
(A) 1945
(B) 1968
(C) 1969
(D) 1946

148. Which of the following supervised the entire election process that led to the independence of Namibia :
(A) United Nations
(B) European Union
(C) ASEAN
(D) Common Wealth

149. What is the kind of state representation in the general assembly of the International Labour Organization :
(A) Two representatives of the state government
(B) One each representative of the workers and employees
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

150. Which is recently created UN institution as part of the Human Rights Machinery :
(A) High Commissioner for Human Rights
(B) Commission on Human Rights
(C) Human Rights Council
(D) Human Rights Institute


Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20.(D)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30.(A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40.(A)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50.(D)
51.(B)52.(A)53.(B)54.(C)55.(D)56.(D)57.(A)58.(C)59.(C)60.(D)
61.(A)62.(A)63.(D)64.(D)65.(D)66.(A)67.(B)68.(C)69.(D)70.(C)
71.(D)72.(A)73.(B)74.(D)75.(C)76.(B)77.(B)78.(A)79.(B)80.(C)
81.(D)82.(C)83.(A)84.(B)85.(C)86.(D)87.(D)88.(C)89.(C)90.(A)
91.(B)92.(A)93.(C)94.(D)95.(D)96.(C)97.(B)98.(B)99.(B)100.(D)101.(D)102.(D)103.(C)104.(A)105.(B)106.(D)107.(B)108.(C)109.(D)110.(B)
111.(A)112.(C)113.(D)114.(C)115.(D)116.(A)117.(A)118.(C)119.(B)120.(A)
121.(C)122.(A)123.(C)124.(D)125.(B)126.(A)127.(B)128.(C)129.(D)130.(B)
131.(A)132.(C)133.(B)134.(C)135.(D)136.(A)137.(B)138.(C)139.(B)140.(D)
141.(A)142.(D)143.(D)144.(A)145.(C)146.(B)147.(D)148.(A)149.(C)150.(C)

U.P. P.S.C .Combined State/Lower Subordinate Services Special (Pre.) Exam Question Paper

U.P. P.S.C

Combined State/Lower Subordinate Services Special (Pre.) Exam

(Held on 24-5-2009)

General Studies


1. Match Buddhist contemporary Kings with their Kingdoms and select the correct answer from the given codes—
List-I (Kings)
(a) Pradyota
(b) Udayana
(c) Prasenjita
(d) Ajatasatru
List-II (Kingdoms)
1. Magadha
2. Vatsa
3. Avanti
4. Kosala
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)

2. Who amongst the following Sultans built the fifth storey of Qutub Minar ?
(A) Qutbuddin Aibek
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (C)

3. Assertion (A) : Mohd. Gazni invaded India seventeen times.
Reason (R) : He wanted to establish permanent Muslim Empire in India.
Select the correct answer from the given code—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans : (C)

4. Which one of the following is the most urbanized State of India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Mizoram
(C) Goa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

5. The freedom fighter who died in jail due to hunger strike was—
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Jatin Das
(D) S. C. Bose
Ans : (C)

6. ‘Tera Tali’ is the folk dance of—
(A) Kerala
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following factors are responsible for rapid social change in Indian Society ?
1. Modern Science & Technology
2. Social Planning
3. Population Growth
4. Material prosperity
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

8. ‘The Vikramsila’ Mahavihara, a great centre of education, was founded by—
(A) Baladitya
(B) Harsha
(C) Gopala
(D) Dharampala
Ans : (D)

9. The Upanishads were translated into Persian by Dara Shikoh under the title—
(A) Al-Fihrist
(B) Kitab-ul-Bayan
(C) Majm-ul-Bahrain
(D) Sirr-i-Akbar
Ans : (D)

10. The author of the book ‘My Country My Life’ is—
(A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Lalkrishna Advani
(D) Rajmohan Gandhi
Ans : (C)

11. The 1st joint meeting of both Houses of the Indian Parliament was held in connection with—
(A) Dowry Abolition Bill
(B) Hindu Code Bill
(C) Bank Nationalisation Bill
(D) Gold Control Bill
Ans : (A)

12. The present day calendar is based on—
(A) Julian Calendar
(B) Gregorian Calendar
(C) Jewish Calendar
(D) Muhammadan Calendar
Ans : (B)

13. Match the following books with their authors with the help of given codes—
List-I (Books)
(a) White Tiger
(b) The 3 Mistakes of My Life
(c) The Audacity of Hope
(d) Six Suspects
List-II (Authors)
1. Barack Obama
2. Vikas Swaroop
3. Arvind Adiga
4. Chetan Bhagat
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

14. Name the author of the book ‘Sea of Poppies’.
(A) Arvind Adiga
(B) Amitav Ghosh
(C) Chetan Bhagat
(D) Vikas Swaroop
Ans : (B)

15. In April 2008 Convention of Nuclear Safety was held in—
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Geneva
(D) Vienna
Ans : (D)

16. Solar radiation plays the most important role in the—
(A) Carbon cycle
(B) Oxygen cycle
(C) Water cycle
(D) Nitrogen cycle
Ans : (A)

17. The 1st Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State was—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Nandini Satipathi
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (B)

18. India tested its first Nuclear device on—
(A) 15 May, 1972
(B) 18 May, 1974
(C) 20 May, 1975
(D) 26 May, 1976
Ans : (B)

19. In which country the 31st SAARC Council of Ministers Meeting took place in February 2009 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
Ans : (C)

20. In Indian currency, the One Rupee Note is issued under the signature of—
(A) Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Secretary, Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(D) Finance Minister, Govt. of India
Ans : (C)

21. Match List-I (Category) with List-II (54th National Film Award Winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Category)
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II (54th National Film Award Winners)
1. Case of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munna Bhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (B)

22. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2015
(C) 2018
(D) 2020
Ans : (B)

23. An accused of an offence cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself, which Article of Indian Constitution provides for this ?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 74
Ans : (A)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Legal Services Day
(b) World Tourism Day
(c) World Theatre Day
(d) International Literacy Day
List-II
1. March 27
2. September 8
3. November 9
4. September 27
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

25. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy held in June 2008, was—
(A) Punjab
(B) Services
(C) West Bengal
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (A)

26. The smallest bone of our body is found in our—
(A) Ear
(B) Nose
(C) Eye
(D) Toe
Ans : (A)

27. Name the country whose President was Chief Guest at 60th Republic Day Parade (26-01-2009)—
(A) Turkey
(B) Chile
(C) Kazakhstan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

28. The 1st recipient of Nehru Award for International Understanding was—
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Mother Teresa
(C) U. Thant
(D) Dr. Jonas Salk
Ans : (C)

29. Which statement is not true about Mother Teresa ?
(A) She was born in Albania
(B) She became a nun at the age of 18 years
(C) She was not an Indian citizen at the time of her death
(D) She was once a teacher in Calcutta
Ans : (A)

30. What is the approximate number of electorates in millions (1 million = 10 lakhs) for 2009 Lok Sabha Elections ?
(A) 815
(B) 613
(C) 714
(D) 903
Ans : (C)

31. India is not a member of—
(A) Commonwealth of Nations
(B) SAARC
(C) NAM Organisation
(D) Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Organization
Ans : (D)

32. The Press Council of India is a—
(A) Statutory Body
(B) Statutory Quasi-judicial Body
(C) Judicial Body
(D) Advisory Body
Ans : (B)

33. The Indian Economy is characterized by—
1. Pre-dominance of Agriculture
2. Pre-dominance of Industry
3. Low Per Capita Income
4. Massive Unemployment
Select your answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

34. ELISA Test is carried out for detection of—
(A) Aids
(B) Typhoid
(C) Cancer
(D) Pregnancy
Ans : (A)

35. The view that ‘Planning in India should, in future, pay more attention to the people than to commodities’ was given by—
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Yashwant Sinha
(C) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(D) Manmohan Singh
Ans : (A)

36. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the State is operated by—
(A) The Governor of the State
(B) The Chief Minister of the State
(C) The State Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

37. The first Speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was—
(A) B. R. Jhaked
(B) G. V. Mavlankar
(C) Hukum Singh
(D) K. S. Hegde
Ans : (B)

38. The largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government budget is—
(A) Defence Expenditure
(B) Subsidies
(C) Interest payments
(D) Expenditure on Social Services
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following is not an element of Human Development Index ?
(A) Life expectancy at birth
(B) Infant Mortality Rate
(C) Adult Literacy Rate
(D) Number of people below poverty line
Ans : (B)

40. ‘Hydrocarbon Vision-2025’ is associated with—
(A) Storage of petroleum products
(B) Euro-I & Euro-II vehicles
(C) Green house effect
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an ‘ecological hot spot’ ?
(A) Western Himalayas
(B) Eastern Himalayas
(C) Eastern Ghats
(D) Western Ghats
Ans : (D)

42. The annual compound rate of growth of real Gross National Product in India was highest during—
(A) Eighth Five Year Plan
(B) Seventh Five Year Plan
(C) Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
Ans : (A)

43. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(C) C. Rangarajan
(D) Vijay L. Kelkar
Ans : (D)

44. The Apex Institution in the sphere of Agriculture Credit is—
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) NABARD
(D) Regional Rural Banks
Ans : (C)

45. Interest rates in India have been reduced in recent years for a number of objectives.
1. To induce private investments
2. To facilitate cheap public borrowing
3. To encourage savings
4. To reduce economic inequalities
Which of the above is/are not correct ? Select it from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

46. Which one of the following has been the most important item in the total imports of India in recent years ?
(A) Chemicals
(B) Chemical Fertilizers
(C) Petroleum & Edible Oil
(D) Iron & Steel
Ans : (C)

47. The Right of Property has been excluded from the list of Fundamental Rights by—
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 46th Amendment
(D) 47th Amendment
Ans : (B)

48. ‘The National Science Day’ is observed on—
(A) February 28
(B) March 8
(C) March 15
(D) March 31
Ans : (A)

49. The game of ‘Chess’ is said to have originated in—
(A) China
(B) Iran
(C) Indonesia
(D) India
Ans : (D)

50. The population of the world in descending order, on the basis of religion is—
(A) Buddhists, Christians, Muslims, Hindus
(B) Christians, Muslims, Hindus, Buddhists
(C) Christians, Buddhists, Hindus, Muslims
(D) Buddhists, Muslims, Christians, Hindus
Ans : (B)

51. Inner-Party Democracy stands for—
(A) A Government formed by several parties with a common programme
(B) Party closest to the party or parties forming the Government
(C) Periodical elections within the party to elect the office bearers of the party
(D) Secrets of Government are shared by parties in power
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following diseases is not caused by Virus ?
(A) Polio
(B) Jaundice
(C) Small Pox
(D) Diphtheria
Ans : (D)

53. Who was the 1st Muslim President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Shaukat Ali
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Badruddin Tyabji
Ans : (D)

54. A needle sinks in water whereas a ship made of iron floats on it because—
(A) The edge of the needle is pointed
(B) The ship is flat
(C) The ship is driven by powerful engine
(D) Specific gravity of the needle is greater than that of water displaced by it
Ans : (D)

55. The cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because—
(A) The clouds prevent radiation of heat from the ground and the air
(B) Clouds absorb sunlight in the day and radiate the same in night
(C) Clouds make the atmosphere damp and generate heat
(D) The clouds obstruct the movement of air which creates heat
Ans : (A)

56. Nagarjun Sagar Project is located on the—
(A) Bhadra river
(B) Bhima river
(C) Krishna river
(D) Godavari river
Ans : (C)

57. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kalpakkam — Tamil Nadu
(B) Rana Pratap Sagar — M.P.
(C) Narora — U.P.
(D) Tarapore — Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

58. Equinox is a state in which the duration of day and night is equal. It falls on—
(A) 31st March and 30th September
(B) 24th December and 30th June
(C) 21st March and 23rd September
(D) 1st April and 1st January
Ans : (C)

59. Which planet takes the longest time to go around the Sun ?
(A) Uranus
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)

60. Zimbabwe was earlier known as—
(A) Southern Rhodesia
(B) Gold Coast
(C) Ivory Coast
(D) Belgian Congo
Ans : (A)

61. Sethusamudram Project connects—
(A) Palk Bay with Pak Strait
(B) Palk Bay with Bay of Bengal
(C) Gulf of Mannar with Palk Bay
(D) Cape Comorin with Gulf of Mannar
Ans : (C)

62. Indian Constitution has taken certain features of the Constitutions of other countries. Which country has contributed to the framing of the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ ?
(A) France
(B) Ireland
(C) Japan
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

63. Assertion (A) : The Himalayan soils are rich in humus.
Reason (R) : The Himalayas have the largest area under forest cover.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

64. Which of the following statements about Sikkim are true ?
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
1. It became an integral part of India in 1975.
2. It is considered as a botanist paradise.
3. Its population is mainly made up of the Lepchas.
Codes :
(A) 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

65. Spring Tide occurs—
(A) When the Sun, Earth and Moon are in straight line
(B) When the Sun and Moon make a right angle with Earth
(C) When strong wind blows
(D) When night is very cold
Ans : (A)

66. Which one of the following human organs is less susceptible to harmful radiations ?
(A) Eyes
(B) Heart
(C) Brain
(D) Lungs
Ans : (D)

67. Who has recently been elected as the President of Russia ?
(A) Dmitry Medvedev
(B) Gennady Zyuganov
(C) Andrei Bogdanov
(D) Vladimir Zhirinovsky
Ans : (A)

68. The leading producer of both rice and wheat in the world is—
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (A)

69. Which one of the following is essential for plants to produce their food ?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Starch
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Proteins
Ans : (C)

70. Who among the following women became the first to fly MIG-35 (Russian aircraft) on 13-02-09 ?
(A) Kirti Chandra
(B) Kalpana Chawla
(C) Suman Sharma
(D) Sunita Williams
Ans : (C)

71. The 1st woman is space was—
(A) Valentina Tereschkova
(B) Kalpana Chawla
(C) Junoko Tabei
(D) Bachendri Pal
Ans : (A)

72. India’s space launching base ‘Sriharikota’ is located in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Orissa
Ans : (A)

73. The organ of the human body directly affected by the disease of Hepatitis is—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Brain
Ans : (A)

74. The 1st Lady Prime Minister in the World was—
(A) Golda Meir
(B) Srimavo Bhandarnaike
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Margarett Thatcher
Ans : (B)

75. A lake starts freezing because of cold. It will first freeze—
(A) at the bottom
(B) at the middle part
(C) at the top surface
(D) uniformly throughout the water
Ans : (C)

76. Biosphere reserves are areas to preserve—
(A) Grasslands
(B) Agricultural produce
(C) Atmospheric balance
(D) Genetic diversity
Ans : (D)

77. What is the function of a Pacemaker ?
(A) It decreases the heart beat
(B) It regulates heart beat
(C) It increases heart beat
(D) It accelerates blood supply to heart
Ans : (B)

78. On which Index is the rate of inflation based ?
(A) Consumer Price Index
(B) Wholesale Price Index
(C) Industrial Workers Consumer Price Index
(D) Rural Labour Consumer Price Index
Ans : (B)

79. The computer system which links and stores information among different countries in the world through a satellite is known as—
(A) Apollo
(B) INSAT 2D
(C) Internet
(D) Nicnet
Ans : (C)

80. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) Theory of evolution was propounded by Charles Darwin
(B) The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion
(C) Dry ice is nothing but solid carbon dioxide
(D) Telephone was invented by Graham Bell
Ans : (B)

81. Match List-I with List-II and select your answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) The bird that never makes its nest
(b) The animal that shakes off its tail
(c) Largest living creature
(d) Most intelligent animal
List-II
1. Lizard
2. Chimpanzee
3. Cuckoo
4. Blue whale
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (B)

82. In the manufacture of glass the raw materials used are—
(A) sand, mica, sulphur
(B) sand, soda, mica
(C) sand, soda, quartz
(D) sand, soda, sulphur
Ans : (C)

83. Which one of the following subjects is related to ‘Robot’ ?
(A) Kinematics
(B) Cybernatics
(C) Hydraulics
(D) Mechanics
Ans : (D)

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from codes given below—
List-I (Institute)
(a) National Institute of Nutrition
(b) Wild Life Institute of India
(c) National Institute of Ayurveda
(d) National Institute of Naturopathy
List-II (Place)
1. Pune
2. Jaipur
3. Dehradun
4. Hyderabad
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)

85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Cardiologist
(b) Nephrologist
(c) Urologist
(d) Oculist
List-II
1. Eye
2. Urinary Tract
3. Heart
4. Kidney
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

86. Thiamine is—
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Vitamin B2
(C) Vitamin B6
(D) Vitamin B1
Ans : (D)

87. Doctors, Artists and Sculptors use calcium sulphate which is popularly known as—
(A) Quick lime
(B) Lime stone
(C) Bleaching powder
(D) Plaster of Paris
Ans : (D)

88. Which one is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sriharikota —Andhra Pradesh
(B) Thumba —Kerala
(C) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre —Karnataka
(D) Pokhran —Rajasthan
Ans : (C)

89. Assertion (A) : LPG is a pollution free vehicular fuel.
Reason (R) : Plying of CNG fuelled-buses is recommended for metropolitan cities in India.
Select the correct answer from the code—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

90. Which one of the following is not a space satellite ?
(A) SLV-3
(B) RS-D1
(C) IRS-1D
(D) INSAT-2D
Ans : (A)

91. Assertion (A) : Forests are a renewable resource.
Reason (R) : They enhance the quality of environment.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

92. The coldest place on the earth is—
(A) Halifax
(B) Chicago
(C) Siachin
(D) Verkhoyansk
Ans : (D)

93. The strait which separates Asia from North America is—
(A) Berring Strait
(B) Palk Strait
(C) Strait of Gibraltar
(D) Strait of Malacca
Ans : (A)

94. The beneficiary States of Sardar Sarovar Project are—
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, M.P. and Rajasthan
(B) A.P., M.P., Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Orissa, M.P., Gujarat and Maharashtra
(D) M.P., Gujarat, Karnataka and Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

95. The largest producer of rubber in India is—
(A) Assam
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

96. The 14th ASEAN Summit concluded on March, 1, 2009 at HUA HIN. In which country is this city located ?
(A) Thailand
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Philippines
Ans : (A)

97. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between—
(A) Hemu and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Sher Shah
(C) Maratha and Ahmad Shah Abdali
(D) Nadir Shah and Mughals
Ans : (C)

98. The Mughal Emperor who appointed maximum number of Hindu Officers was—
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shah Jahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (D)

99. Ramgundam Super Thermal Power Station is located in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (A)

100. The 1st Census in India during the British period was held during the tenure of—
(A) Lord Dufferin
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Mayo
(D) Lord Ripon
Ans : (C)