IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper 2008

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), Delhi

B.Ed. Entrance Exam., 2008

Part-A
Section–I
General English
Comprehension

Directions—Read the following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.

A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others as social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. My right of living implies my duty to my fellow beings to allow them the same conditions of life. In fact, rights and duties are correlated. What is a right in regard to one may be a duty in regard to others. Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. We should always observe from the standpoint of others. Moral duty is more effective than legal rights. A moral duty is that which is binding upon the people on moral grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the society.

I must try to create conditions that contribute to the welfare of humanity. Similarly, I owe a duty to my parents—to be obedient and respectful to them. This duty originates from the sense of responsibility which is directly related to our conscience. So this is concerned with a moral duty which any person owes without a legal bondage.

A sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of civilization. Hypocrisy is quite reverse to the sense of duty. It involves wickedness, while duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.

1. According to the passage, rights and duties are—
(A) Two sides of the same coin
(B) Correlated
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

2. According to the passage legal duty is—
(A) More important than moral duty
(B) Less important than moral duty
(C) More effective than moral duty
(D) Less effective than moral duty

3. Duty comes from—
(A) Responsibility
(B) Legal bondage
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) None of the above

4. Which of the following statements is not correct according to the passage ?
(A) Hypocrisy involves wickedness
(B) Hypocrisy is opposed to duty
(C) Duty involves sincerity
(D) Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization

5. Which of the following moral duties has not been mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Moral duty towards our motherland
(B) Moral duty towards our parents
(C) Moral duty towards the poor
(D) Moral duty to contribute to the welfare of humanity

6. Which of the following is not related to moral duty ?
(A) Sense of responsibility
(B) Conscience
(C) Hypocrisy
(D) Sincerity

7. Why is it a duty to help the poor ?
(A) Because I am poor
(B) Because I am rich
(C) Because I belong to the society
(D) Because God wants this

8. Why should I be obedient and respectful to my parents ?
(A) Because of my sense of responsibility
(B) Because of legal bonding
(C) Because of civilization
(D) Because of hypocrisy

9. “We should always observe from the standpoint of others.” This is a—
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Complex sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Phrase

10. The word ‘always’ in “We should always observe from the standpoint of others” is a/an
(A) Adverb
(B) Adjective
(C) Noun
(D) Verb

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)

Part-A
Section–II
Logical & Analytical
Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 11–14) In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers, with one blank is given. Identify the missing member from the given alternatives.

11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343

12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540

13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445

14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746

Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.

15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP

16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU

17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS

18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC

19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship

Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.

Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.

25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows

29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R

30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August

Answers with Explanation :
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.

Part-A
Section–III
Educational and General Awareness

31. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade

33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium

34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee

35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission

37. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh

39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans

40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light

41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk

43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma

44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba

45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa

46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu

48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara

49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act

50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components

51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen

52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report

53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education

54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)

55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006

Answers :

31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)

Part-A
Section–IV
Teaching-Learning and The School

56. What would be your approach if a student interrupts in your class ?
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work

57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now

58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person

59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal

60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning

61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information

62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities

63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch

64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary

65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt

66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home

67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more

68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society

69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well

70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment

71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model

72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful

73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it

74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class

75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige

76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual

77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands

78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons

79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning

80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship

Answers :
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)

Part-B
Section–V
Subject Competence
(i) Science

following passage carefully and pick out the best answer out of the our choices given in the questions that follow.81. Clothes do not dry quickly on a rainy day because on a rainy day—
(A) Humidity is high
(B) Humidity is low
(C) Temperature becomes high
(D) Atmospheric pressure rises

82. Joule is the unit of—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Energy
(D) Pressure

83. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is—
(A) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
(B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz to 20 KHz
(D) 2 KHz to 20 KHz

84. Tritium is an—
(A) Isobar of Hydrogen
(B) Isotope of Hydrogen
(C) Isobar of helium
(D) Isotope of helium

85. Which of the following ions helps in the
opening and closing of stomata ?
(A) Na⁺
(B) K⁺
(C) Ca⁺⁺
(D) None of the above

86. Which of the following does not have plus (+) or minus (–) signs marked on it ?
(A) Resistor
(B) Ammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Battery

87. Photosynthesis is a—
(A) Catabolic process
(B) Anabolic process
(C) Amphibolic process
(D) All of these

88. If a mirror forms an erect but diminished image of an object placed anywhere infront of it, is a—
(A) Concave Mirror
(B) Plane Mirror
(C) Convex Mirror
(D) Concave and convex Mirror (both)

89. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called—
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Thermopile
(C) Barometer
(D) Manometer

90. Orange colour of the setting sun is due to—
(A) Reflection of light
(B) Diffusion of light
(C) Scattering of light
(D) Polarisation of light

91. What is the final colour of blue litmus when a dilute solution of NaOH is added to it ?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Orange
(D) Blue

92. Pick the odd one out—
(A) Fermentation
(B) Aerobic Respiration
(C) Anaerobic Respiration
(D) Breathing

93. Hypotonic solution as compared to Hypertonic solution has—
(A) More solute
(B) Less solute
(C) Same solute
(D) Nothing can be said about the amount of solute

94. Volt is the unit of—
(A) Charge
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Potential difference

95. Two resistors having resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are connected is series with a battery. The current through the 2 ohms resistor is 2 amperes. The current through the 1 ohm resistor will be—
(A) 0·5 amp
(B) 1 amp
(C) 2 amp
(D) 4 amp

96. The addition of which one of the following will decrease the pH value of water ?
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Salt
(D) Hydrochloric acid

97. The branch of science that deals with tumours is—
(A) Osteology
(B) Anatomy
(C) Oncology
(D) Urology

98. Pneumonia is a disease associated with—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Gums
(D) Kidney

99. ‘Decibel’ is a measure of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Energy

100. Which of the following have the highest frequency ?
(A) Heat waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays

Answers with Explanation :
81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C) 91. (D)
92. (A) Fermentation is an enzymatic transformation of organic substracts. Rest three do not need enzymatic transformation.
93. (B) 94. (D)
95. (C) In series connection same current flows through all the resistances.
96. (D) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (D)

Part-B
Section–V
(ii) Mathematics

101. The value of

102. In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. Another 5 litres of milk is added to the mixture. The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is—
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2

103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km

104. If 5^x–2·3^2x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000

106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250

107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%

108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40

109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days

110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7

111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos² A is—
(A) m²/n²
(B) m² × n²
(C) m² – n²
(D) m² + n²

112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m

113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm

114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363

115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm³, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2

116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25

117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg

118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5

120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12

Answers :
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)

Part-B
(iii) Social Science

121. The Treaty of Sreerangapattanam was between Tipu Sultan and—
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley

122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti

123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant

124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa

126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these

127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro

128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)

130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these

131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935

132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka

133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds

134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges

135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers

136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings

137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995

138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski

139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage

140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton

Answers :

121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)

Part-B
(iv) English

141. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active

142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow

143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial

144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest

145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist

146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic

147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial

148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive

149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of

150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive

151. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?

152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard

153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over

154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On

155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron

156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte

157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare

158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles

159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period

160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking

Answers :

141. (D) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)

CPMT Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper 2008 (Zoology)

CPMT Entrance Exam Solved Paper 2008

(Zoology)

1. Match column A (Types of fruits) with column B (Examples) then select the correct answer from the options given below—
Column A
a. Lomentum
b. Samara
c. Achene
d. Amphisacra
Column B
1. Aegle
2. Mirabilis
3. Acacia
4. Acer
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

2. Phototropic and geotropic movements in plants have been traced to be linked with—
(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Specific enzymes

3. The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by—
(A) Brawn
(B) Nawaschin
(C) Maheswari
(D) None of the above

4. When the change from sol into gel is reversible, the colloid is called—
(A) Gelation
(B) Solation
(C) Suspension
(D) Reversible colloid

5. The nuclear spindle consists of—
(A) One type of fibre
(B) Two types of fibres
(C) Three types of fibres
(D) Four types of fibres

6. Which of the following types of RNA takes a message from DNA in the nucleus to the
ribosomes in the cytoplasm ?
(A) m-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) t-RNA
(D) All of the above

7. ‘The imbibition theory of ascent of sap’ was first suggested by—
(A) Strasburger
(B) Bose
(C) Fischer
(D) Sachs

8. The maximum transpiration occurs in—
(A) Mesophytic plants
(B) Hydrophytic plants
(C) Xerophytic plants
(D) All algae except cyanobacteria

9. The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called—
(A) Percolation
(B) Conduction
(C) Leaching
(D) Transpiration

10. One of the important evolutionary features of alternation of generation from algae to
flowering plants is—
(A) Gradual elaboration of sporophyte
(B) Gradual elaboration of gametophyte
(C) Gradual elaboration of both sporophyte and gametophyte
(D) Elimination of sporophyte

11. Circular DNA is found in—
(A) Chloroplasts
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Bacteria
(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following respiratory substrates has the highest value of respiratory quotient ?
(A) Glucose
(B) Protein
(C) Fats
(D) Malic acid

13. Who described mitochondria as bioplast ?
(A) Altmann
(B) Waldayer
(C) Kollikar
(D) Hanstein

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding microtubules ?
(A) They are about 200 A° to 270 A° in external diameter having an electron dense wall some 50A° to 70A° thick
(B) They can be considered as the universal components of eukaryotic cells
(C) They are usually found in rotating conditions
(D) All of the above statements are correct

15. The term ‘chromatophore’ was coined by—
(A) Garner and Allard
(B) W. Pfeffer
(C) Nawaschin
(D) Schmitz

16. Phytotron is a device by which—
(A) Plants are grown in controlled environment
(B) Leaf fall occurs on abscission layer
(C) Mutations are produced in plants especially during spores formation
(D) Protons are liberated after photosynthesis

17. Annual (growth) rings are formed by the activity of—
(A) Xylem
(B) Phloem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Cambium

18. The chief components of Hill’s reaction used in Blackmann’s reactions are—
(A) ATP and ADP
(B) ATP and NADPH₂
(C) NADP and ADP
(D) ATP and NADH₂

19. The process of the escape of liquid from the tip of uninjured leaf is called—
(A) Transpiration
(B) Osmosis
(C) Guttation
(D) Evaporation

20. The primitive type of stomata are found in—
(A) Leaves of moss plants
(B) Xerophytic leaves
(C) Apophysis of capsule
(D) Dorsiventral leaves of monocot

21. Long dark periods of short day plants (SDPs), if interrupted by a brief exposure of red light (660 μ) the flowering is—
(A) Inhibited
(B) Vigorous
(C) Promoted
(D) None of the above

22. Number of chromatids per chromosome complex at metaphase is—
(A) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(B) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(C) Four in mitosis and two in meiosis
(D) Two in both mitosis and meiosis

23. The dark staining region in a chromosome is called—
(A) Euchromatin
(B) Heterochromatin
(C) Paracentric
(D) Pericentric

24. Plastids are not found in—
(A) Gram positive bacteria
(B) Gram negative bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) All of the above

25. Bacterial nucleoid consists of—
(A) One double-stranded DNA
(B) Two double-stranded DNA
(C) Two single-stranded DNA
(D) One single-stranded DNA

26. The number of chromosomes in Pinus pollen grain in 12, the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of its own is—
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36

27. During protein synthesis in prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is induced
by—
(A) Serine
(B) Lysine
(C) Methionine
(D) Leucine

28. In Oxalis, the flowers open in the morning and close during evening because of—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Phototaxis
(C) Photonasty
(D) Nyctinasty

29. Conjoint, collateral, open and endarch vascular bundles are found in—
(A) Dicot root
(B) Dicot stem
(C) Monocot root
(D) Monocot stem

30. Spraying of DDT produces pollution of—
(A) Air only
(B) Airal water
(C) Air and soil
(D) Air, water and soil

31. The ‘first codon’ discovered by Nirenberg and Matthaei was—
(A) AAU
(B) GGG
(C) CCC
(D) UUU

32. The smallest unit of genetic material capable of undergoing mutation is—
(A) Cistron
(B) Muton
(C) Recon
(D) Proton

33. The least number of t RNA molecules for each of the twenty amino acids found in
protein is—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

34. Which of the following, plants is commonly known as ‘redwood’ ?
(A) Sequoia sempervirens
(B) Dacridium laxifolium
(C) Sequoia giganteum
(D) Polygalia hirsute

35. Epidermal tissue forms the outer protective covering of a herbaceous plant. It is modified in—
(A) Leaves
(B) Stems
(C) Roots
(D) All of the above

36. PCR based markers have been developed to—
(A) Create terminate codon
(B) Manufacture antibiotics
(C) Differentiate different biotypes of gall midge
(D) Obtain soil micro-organisms with the help of specific enzyme—reductase

37. The function of a root cap is to—
(A) Produce embryonic cell
(B) Protect the root apical meristem from damage
(C) Absorb minerals
(D) Absorb water

38. In a certain dicotyledonous stem the vascular cambium is a meristematic tissue referred to as—
(A) Apical
(B) Lateral
(C) Intercalary
(D) Secondary

39. In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to—
(A) Producers
(B) Consumers
(C) Tertiary consumers
(D) Decomposers

40. Petaloid staminode is seen in genus—
(A) Cassia
(B) Canna
(C) Solanum
(D) All of the above

41. A recessive pair of alleles at one locus sometimes prevents the expression of a dominant allele at another locus. This expression is termed as—
(A) Pleiotropy
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Complementary gene
(D) Epistasis

42. Floridean starch is found in—
(A) Cyanophyceae
(B) Chlorophyceae
(C) Myxophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae

43. Feathery stigma is present in—
(A) Ceasalpinia
(B) Pisum sativum
(C) Datura stramonium
(D) Triticum aestivum

44. Maximum transpiration occurs through/ from—
(A) Ground tissue of scale leaf
(B) Protoderm and procambium
(C) Periderm and lenticels
(D) Dermal tissue

45. Separation of components of a mixture based on their differential movements is called—
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Dialysis
(C) Osmosis
(D) Chromatography

46. The free energy in breaking down of glucose into CO₂ and H₂O is—
(A) Negative and exergonic
(B) Positive and exergonic
(C) Negative and endergonic
(D) Positive and endergonic

47. A pome fruit is said to be false because—
(A) The fruit is present in fleshy edible thalamus
(B) The endocarp is cartilaginous
(C) The pericarp is inconspicuous
(D) The fruit is derived from inferior ovary

48. If mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14 in what way would the interpretations have been different ?
(A) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(B) He would have mapped the chromosome
(C) He would have discovered blending o r incomplete dominance
(D) He would have discovered sex linkage

49. Enzymes are absent in—
(A) Fungi
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Viruses
(D) Algae

50. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form
DNA is approximately—
(A) 2 nm
(B) 20 nm
(C) 0•34 nm
(D) 3•4 nm

Answers with Explanation
1. (D)
2. (A) Auxin’s concentration toward nonilluminated side is greater than illuminated side. Thus, it shows phototropism. Auxin also shows geotropism in seed-ling, where due to gravitation it accumulates in the lower region of plumule or shoot.
3. (D) The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek.
4. (D) The sol, under certain conditions, may change into another form called gel, the process being called gelation. When a gel is converted into sol, the process is called solation. When the change from sol into gel is reversible the colloid is called reversible.
5. (C) Nuclear spindle consists of three types of fibres—interzonal, continuous and discontinuous.
6. (A) m-RNA carries a message from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
7. (C) The imbibition theory of ascent of sap was first suggested by R. A. Fischer and supported by Sachs.
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D)
12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (D) The electron microscopic studies have revealed that in photosynthetic bacteria and blue-green algae some distinct lamellar structures meant for photosynthesis occur in protoplasm. These pigmented lamellae are named as chromatophores by Schmitz (1882).
16. (A) Phytotron—In glasshouses (green houses) when plants are kept on artificial light and temperature, the method is called phytotron and is applicable in tissue culture, horticulture and agriculture.
17. (D) The activity of cambium is often periodical, and as a result, distinct growth layers are formed in the xylem. In transverse view these growth layers appear as rings, and hence are referred to as growth rings or annual rings.
18. (B) The assimilatory power i.e., NADPH₂ and ATP are formed in light or Hill’s reaction. They are utilized in the dark reaction or Blackmann’s reaction of photosynthesis in reducing CO₂ to carbohydrates.
19. (C)
20. (C) In the stomata of apophysis of capsule only stomatal pores are reported (i.e., without guard cells). Guard-cell-lacking stomata are said to be primitive.
21. (A) 22. (B)
23. (B) Heterochromatin is a dark staining region which contains genetically inert or late replicating genes.
24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) Pinus is a member of gymnosperms and its endosperm develops before fertilization. Hence it is haploid and, therefore, there will be no change in its chromosome number.
27. (C) In protein synthesis of prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is always brought about by an amino acid, methionine, which is coded by AUG.
28. (C) Photonasty or light-induced opening and closing of flower is seen in Oxalis.
29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (D)
32. (B) Muton is a unit of mutation.
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D)
36. (C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based markers have been developed to differentiate different biotypes of gall midge.
37. (B)
38. (B) Lateral meristems are present along the lateral sides of stem and roots. Interstelar
cambium ring formed by intrafascicular, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
examples of lateral meristem.
39. (A)
40. (B) Canna belongs to family Cannaceae. Petaloid staminode is characteristic of this family.
41. (D)
42. (D) Floridean starch is a reserve food material of algal class-Rhodophyceae.
43. (D) Wheat (Triticum aestivum) belongs to family Gramineae (Poaceae) which has characteristic Feathery stigma.
44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (C) Viruses are metabolically inactive outside the host cell because they lack their own enzyme systems and protein synthesis machinery.
50. (D) The length of one turn of the helix in a Bform DNA is approximately 3•4 nm. The nucleotides are set in the planes at the right angles to the axis of the helix and spaced at an intervals of 3•4 A° or 0•34 nm.

CPMT Entrance Exam Solved Question Paper 2008 (Botany)

CPMT Entrance Exam Solved Paper 2008

Botany

1. Match column A (Types of fruits) with column B (Examples) then select the correct answer from the options given below—
Column A
a. Lomentum
b. Samara
c. Achene
d. Amphisacra
Column B
1. Aegle
2. Mirabilis
3. Acacia
4. Acer
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

2. Phototropic and geotropic movements in plants have been traced to be linked with—
(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Specific enzymes

3. The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by—
(A) Brawn
(B) Nawaschin
(C) Maheswari
(D) None of the above

4. When the change from sol into gel is reversible, the colloid is called—
(A) Gelation
(B) Solation
(C) Suspension
(D) Reversible colloid

5. The nuclear spindle consists of—
(A) One type of fibre
(B) Two types of fibres
(C) Three types of fibres
(D) Four types of fibres

6. Which of the following types of RNA takes a message from DNA in the nucleus to the
ribosomes in the cytoplasm ?
(A) m-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) t-RNA
(D) All of the above

7. ‘The imbibition theory of ascent of sap’ was first suggested by—
(A) Strasburger
(B) Bose
(C) Fischer
(D) Sachs

8. The maximum transpiration occurs in—
(A) Mesophytic plants
(B) Hydrophytic plants
(C) Xerophytic plants
(D) All algae except cyanobacteria

9. The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called—
(A) Percolation
(B) Conduction
(C) Leaching
(D) Transpiration

10. One of the important evolutionary features of alternation of generation from algae to
flowering plants is—
(A) Gradual elaboration of sporophyte
(B) Gradual elaboration of gametophyte
(C) Gradual elaboration of both sporophyte and gametophyte
(D) Elimination of sporophyte

11. Circular DNA is found in—
(A) Chloroplasts
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Bacteria
(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following respiratory substrates has the highest value of respiratory quotient ?
(A) Glucose
(B) Protein
(C) Fats
(D) Malic acid

13. Who described mitochondria as bioplast ?
(A) Altmann
(B) Waldayer
(C) Kollikar
(D) Hanstein

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding microtubules ?
(A) They are about 200 A° to 270 A° in external diameter having an electron dense wall some 50A° to 70A° thick
(B) They can be considered as the universal components of eukaryotic cells
(C) They are usually found in rotating conditions
(D) All of the above statements are correct

15. The term ‘chromatophore’ was coined by—
(A) Garner and Allard
(B) W. Pfeffer
(C) Nawaschin
(D) Schmitz

16. Phytotron is a device by which—
(A) Plants are grown in controlled environment
(B) Leaf fall occurs on abscission layer
(C) Mutations are produced in plants especially during spores formation
(D) Protons are liberated after photosynthesis

17. Annual (growth) rings are formed by the activity of—
(A) Xylem
(B) Phloem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Cambium

18. The chief components of Hill’s reaction used in Blackmann’s reactions are—
(A) ATP and ADP
(B) ATP and NADPH₂
(C) NADP and ADP
(D) ATP and NADH₂

19. The process of the escape of liquid from the tip of uninjured leaf is called—
(A) Transpiration
(B) Osmosis
(C) Guttation
(D) Evaporation

20. The primitive type of stomata are found in—
(A) Leaves of moss plants
(B) Xerophytic leaves
(C) Apophysis of capsule
(D) Dorsiventral leaves of monocot

21. Long dark periods of short day plants (SDPs), if interrupted by a brief exposure of red light (660 μ) the flowering is—
(A) Inhibited
(B) Vigorous
(C) Promoted
(D) None of the above

22. Number of chromatids per chromosome complex at metaphase is—
(A) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(B) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(C) Four in mitosis and two in meiosis
(D) Two in both mitosis and meiosis

23. The dark staining region in a chromosome is called—
(A) Euchromatin
(B) Heterochromatin
(C) Paracentric
(D) Pericentric

24. Plastids are not found in—
(A) Gram positive bacteria
(B) Gram negative bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) All of the above

25. Bacterial nucleoid consists of—
(A) One double-stranded DNA
(B) Two double-stranded DNA
(C) Two single-stranded DNA
(D) One single-stranded DNA

26. The number of chromosomes in Pinus pollen grain in 12, the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of its own is—
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36

27. During protein synthesis in prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is induced
by—
(A) Serine
(B) Lysine
(C) Methionine
(D) Leucine

28. In Oxalis, the flowers open in the morning and close during evening because of—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Phototaxis
(C) Photonasty
(D) Nyctinasty

29. Conjoint, collateral, open and endarch vascular bundles are found in—
(A) Dicot root
(B) Dicot stem
(C) Monocot root
(D) Monocot stem

30. Spraying of DDT produces pollution of—
(A) Air only
(B) Airal water
(C) Air and soil
(D) Air, water and soil

31. The ‘first codon’ discovered by Nirenberg and Matthaei was—
(A) AAU
(B) GGG
(C) CCC
(D) UUU

32. The smallest unit of genetic material capable of undergoing mutation is—
(A) Cistron
(B) Muton
(C) Recon
(D) Proton

33. The least number of t RNA molecules for each of the twenty amino acids found in
protein is—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

34. Which of the following, plants is commonly known as ‘redwood’ ?
(A) Sequoia sempervirens
(B) Dacridium laxifolium
(C) Sequoia giganteum
(D) Polygalia hirsute

35. Epidermal tissue forms the outer protective covering of a herbaceous plant. It is modified in—
(A) Leaves
(B) Stems
(C) Roots
(D) All of the above

36. PCR based markers have been developed to—
(A) Create terminate codon
(B) Manufacture antibiotics
(C) Differentiate different biotypes of gall midge
(D) Obtain soil micro-organisms with the help of specific enzyme—reductase

37. The function of a root cap is to—
(A) Produce embryonic cell
(B) Protect the root apical meristem from damage
(C) Absorb minerals
(D) Absorb water

38. In a certain dicotyledonous stem the vascular cambium is a meristematic tissue referred to as—
(A) Apical
(B) Lateral
(C) Intercalary
(D) Secondary

39. In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to—
(A) Producers
(B) Consumers
(C) Tertiary consumers
(D) Decomposers

40. Petaloid staminode is seen in genus—
(A) Cassia
(B) Canna
(C) Solanum
(D) All of the above

41. A recessive pair of alleles at one locus sometimes prevents the expression of a dominant allele at another locus. This expression is termed as—
(A) Pleiotropy
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Complementary gene
(D) Epistasis

42. Floridean starch is found in—
(A) Cyanophyceae
(B) Chlorophyceae
(C) Myxophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae

43. Feathery stigma is present in—
(A) Ceasalpinia
(B) Pisum sativum
(C) Datura stramonium
(D) Triticum aestivum

44. Maximum transpiration occurs through/ from—
(A) Ground tissue of scale leaf
(B) Protoderm and procambium
(C) Periderm and lenticels
(D) Dermal tissue

45. Separation of components of a mixture based on their differential movements is called—
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Dialysis
(C) Osmosis
(D) Chromatography

46. The free energy in breaking down of glucose into CO₂ and H₂O is—
(A) Negative and exergonic
(B) Positive and exergonic
(C) Negative and endergonic
(D) Positive and endergonic

47. A pome fruit is said to be false because—
(A) The fruit is present in fleshy edible thalamus
(B) The endocarp is cartilaginous
(C) The pericarp is inconspicuous
(D) The fruit is derived from inferior ovary

48. If mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14 in what way would the interpretations have been different ?
(A) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(B) He would have mapped the chromosome
(C) He would have discovered blending o r incomplete dominance
(D) He would have discovered sex linkage

49. Enzymes are absent in—
(A) Fungi
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Viruses
(D) Algae

50. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form
DNA is approximately—
(A) 2 nm
(B) 20 nm
(C) 0•34 nm
(D) 3•4 nm

Answers with Explanation
1. (D)
2. (A) Auxin’s concentration toward nonilluminated side is greater than illuminated side. Thus, it shows phototropism. Auxin also shows geotropism in seed-ling, where due to gravitation it accumulates in the lower region of plumule or shoot.
3. (D) The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek.
4. (D) The sol, under certain conditions, may change into another form called gel, the process being called gelation. When a gel is converted into sol, the process is called solation. When the change from sol into gel is reversible the colloid is called reversible.
5. (C) Nuclear spindle consists of three types of fibres—interzonal, continuous and discontinuous.
6. (A) m-RNA carries a message from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
7. (C) The imbibition theory of ascent of sap was first suggested by R. A. Fischer and supported by Sachs.
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D)
12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (D) The electron microscopic studies have revealed that in photosynthetic bacteria and blue-green algae some distinct lamellar structures meant for photosynthesis occur in protoplasm. These pigmented lamellae are named as chromatophores by Schmitz (1882).
16. (A) Phytotron—In glasshouses (green houses) when plants are kept on artificial light and temperature, the method is called phytotron and is applicable in tissue culture, horticulture and agriculture.
17. (D) The activity of cambium is often periodical, and as a result, distinct growth layers are formed in the xylem. In transverse view these growth layers appear as rings, and hence are referred to as growth rings or annual rings.
18. (B) The assimilatory power i.e., NADPH₂ and ATP are formed in light or Hill’s reaction. They are utilized in the dark reaction or Blackmann’s reaction of photosynthesis in reducing CO₂ to carbohydrates.
19. (C)
20. (C) In the stomata of apophysis of capsule only stomatal pores are reported (i.e., without guard cells). Guard-cell-lacking stomata are said to be primitive.
21. (A) 22. (B)
23. (B) Heterochromatin is a dark staining region which contains genetically inert or late replicating genes.
24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) Pinus is a member of gymnosperms and its endosperm develops before fertilization. Hence it is haploid and, therefore, there will be no change in its chromosome number.
27. (C) In protein synthesis of prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is always brought about by an amino acid, methionine, which is coded by AUG.
28. (C) Photonasty or light-induced opening and closing of flower is seen in Oxalis.
29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (D)
32. (B) Muton is a unit of mutation.
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D)
36. (C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based markers have been developed to differentiate different biotypes of gall midge.
37. (B)
38. (B) Lateral meristems are present along the lateral sides of stem and roots. Interstelar
cambium ring formed by intrafascicular, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
examples of lateral meristem.
39. (A)
40. (B) Canna belongs to family Cannaceae. Petaloid staminode is characteristic of this family.
41. (D)
42. (D) Floridean starch is a reserve food material of algal class-Rhodophyceae.
43. (D) Wheat (Triticum aestivum) belongs to family Gramineae (Poaceae) which has characteristic Feathery stigma.
44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (C) Viruses are metabolically inactive outside the host cell because they lack their own enzyme systems and protein synthesis machinery.
50. (D) The length of one turn of the helix in a Bform DNA is approximately 3•4 nm. The nucleotides are set in the planes at the right angles to the axis of the helix and spaced at an intervals of 3•4 A° or 0•34 nm.